Trigonometric sums and limits

Calculus Level 5

Given that S ( n ) = k = 1 n sin k x , S(n)=\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{n} \sin {kx},

find the value of

lim x π / 3 lim p S ( 1 ) + S ( 2 ) + S ( 3 ) + . . . . . . + S ( p ) p . \displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow \pi/3} \lim_{p \rightarrow \infty}\dfrac{ S(1)+S(2)+S(3)+......+S(p)}{p}.

Note: This is not an original question - it was provided by our professor.


The answer is 0.866.

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2 solutions

Bogdan Simeonov
Aug 21, 2014

Using de Moivre, we can find that

S ( n ) = I m ( e i x + . . . + e i n x ) S(n)=Im(e^{ix}+...+e^{inx})

After a bit of work with the geometric series formula we get that

S ( n ) = cos ( x / 2 ) cos ( ( n + 1 / 2 ) x ) 2 sin ( x / 2 ) \displaystyle S(n)=\frac{\cos({x/2})-\cos((n+1/2)x)}{2\sin(x/2)}

Then we sum S(n) from 1 to p:

n = 1 p S ( n ) = n = 1 p cos ( x / 2 ) cos ( ( n + 1 / 2 ) x ) 2 sin ( x / 2 ) = p . cos ( x / 2 ) 2 sin ( x / 2 ) 1 2 sin ( x / 2 ) . n = 1 p cos ( ( n + 1 / 2 ) x ) \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{p}S(n)=\sum_{n=1}^{p}\frac{\cos({x/2})-\cos((n+1/2)x)}{2\sin(x/2)} = p.\frac{\cos({x/2})}{2\sin(x/2)}-\frac{1}{2\sin(x/2)}.\sum_{n=1}^{p} {\cos((n+1/2)x)}

Similar to the way we figured out S(n), we can find a formula for the sum of cosines, namely

sin ( x ) + sin ( x ( p + 1 ) ) 2 sin ( x / 2 ) \frac{\sin(x)+\sin(x(p+1))}{2\sin(x/2)}

But in the question we are dealing with 1/p.(the sum) as p goes to infinity.Then everything will go to zero (sine is a bounded function), thus we are left with only

1 p . p . cos ( x / 2 ) 2 sin ( x / 2 ) \frac{1}{p}.p.\frac{\cos({x/2})}{2\sin(x/2)}

Canceling the p's and plugging in x=pi/3, we get the desired answer

Exactly the solution I intended to post.. +1

Pratik Shastri - 6 years, 9 months ago

You can see that S(k+6) = S(k).

Guilherme Silva - 6 years, 9 months ago

Same technique here . This is more of a trigonometric series sum rather than Calculus isn't it ?

Arif Ahmed - 6 years, 8 months ago

Let us calculate lim n S ( n ) \lim_{n\to\infty} S(n) if it exists then by Cauchy's First Limit Theorem the limit of Arithmetic Mean of S ( n ) S(n) as n tends to infinity is equal to the limit of S ( n ) S(n) . Note also that S ( n ) = k = 0 s i n ( k x ) S(n) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} sin(kx)

lim n S ( n ) = ( 1 1 e i π 3 ) \lim_{n\to\infty} S(n) = \Im (\frac{1}{1-e^{\frac{i\pi}{3}}})

Note that I have used the Taylor Expansion for 1 1 z = r = 0 z r \frac{1}{1-z} = \sum_{r=0}^{\infty} z^{r} which is valid for ( z ) 1 \lvert(z)\rvert \leq 1 (except for z = 1 z=1 )

So here z = e i π 3 z = e^{\frac{i\pi}{3}} .

So our answer is ( 1 1 cos ( π 3 ) i sin ( π 3 ) ) \Im (\frac{1}{1-\cos(\frac{\pi}{3}) - i\sin(\frac{\pi}{3})})

= sin ( π 3 ) =\sin(\frac{\pi}{3})

= 3 2 \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}

Here ( . ) \Im(.) denotes the imaginary part of complex Number

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