Given that S ( n ) = k = 1 ∑ n sin k x ,
find the value of
x → π / 3 lim p → ∞ lim p S ( 1 ) + S ( 2 ) + S ( 3 ) + . . . . . . + S ( p ) .
Note: This is not an original question - it was provided by our professor.
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Exactly the solution I intended to post.. +1
You can see that S(k+6) = S(k).
Same technique here . This is more of a trigonometric series sum rather than Calculus isn't it ?
Let us calculate lim n → ∞ S ( n ) if it exists then by Cauchy's First Limit Theorem the limit of Arithmetic Mean of S ( n ) as n tends to infinity is equal to the limit of S ( n ) . Note also that S ( n ) = ∑ k = 0 ∞ s i n ( k x )
lim n → ∞ S ( n ) = ℑ ( 1 − e 3 i π 1 )
Note that I have used the Taylor Expansion for 1 − z 1 = ∑ r = 0 ∞ z r which is valid for ∣ ( z ) ∣ ≤ 1 (except for z = 1 )
So here z = e 3 i π .
So our answer is ℑ ( 1 − cos ( 3 π ) − i sin ( 3 π ) 1 )
= sin ( 3 π )
= 2 3
Here ℑ ( . ) denotes the imaginary part of complex Number
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Using de Moivre, we can find that
S ( n ) = I m ( e i x + . . . + e i n x )
After a bit of work with the geometric series formula we get that
S ( n ) = 2 sin ( x / 2 ) cos ( x / 2 ) − cos ( ( n + 1 / 2 ) x )
Then we sum S(n) from 1 to p:
n = 1 ∑ p S ( n ) = n = 1 ∑ p 2 sin ( x / 2 ) cos ( x / 2 ) − cos ( ( n + 1 / 2 ) x ) = p . 2 sin ( x / 2 ) cos ( x / 2 ) − 2 sin ( x / 2 ) 1 . n = 1 ∑ p cos ( ( n + 1 / 2 ) x )
Similar to the way we figured out S(n), we can find a formula for the sum of cosines, namely
2 sin ( x / 2 ) sin ( x ) + sin ( x ( p + 1 ) )
But in the question we are dealing with 1/p.(the sum) as p goes to infinity.Then everything will go to zero (sine is a bounded function), thus we are left with only
p 1 . p . 2 sin ( x / 2 ) cos ( x / 2 )
Canceling the p's and plugging in x=pi/3, we get the desired answer