Trigonometry! #29

Geometry Level 3

The equation 2 cos 2 ( 1 2 x ) sin 2 x = x 2 + x 2 2\cos^{2}\left(\frac {1}{2} x \right)\sin^{2} x = x^2 + x^{-2} such that 0 < x π 2 0<x≤\frac {\pi}{2} has how many real solutions?

This problem is part of the set Trigonometry .


The answer is 0.

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1 solution

Chew-Seong Cheong
Jan 17, 2015

Both the LHS and RHS are positive, therefore AM-GM inequality applies.

We note that the R H S = x 2 + 1 x 2 2 RHS = x^2 + \dfrac {1}{x^2} \ge 2

Now, consider the maximum value of LHS:

2 cos 2 x 2 sin 2 x = ( cos x + 1 ) ( 1 cos 2 x ) = 1 + cos x cos 2 x cos 3 x \quad 2\cos^2{\frac{x}{2}}\sin^2{x} = (\cos{x}+1)(1 - \cos^2{x}) = 1 + \cos{x} - \cos^2{x} - \cos^3{x}

d d x ( 2 cos 2 x 2 sin 2 x ) = sin x + 2 cos x sin x + 3 cos 2 x sin x \Rightarrow \dfrac {d}{dx} (2\cos^2{\frac{x}{2}}\sin^2{x}) = -\sin{x} + 2\cos{x}\sin {x} + 3\cos^2{x}\sin{x}

d d x ( 2 cos 2 x 2 sin 2 x ) = 0 sin x = 0 \quad \dfrac {d}{dx} (2\cos^2{\frac{x}{2}}\sin^2{x}) = 0\quad \Rightarrow \sin{x} = 0 or 3 cos 2 x + 2 cos x 1 = 0 3\cos^2{x} + 2\cos{x} - 1 = 0

When sin x = 0 L H S = 0 \sin{x} = 0\quad \Rightarrow LHS = 0 hence not the maximum.

When 3 cos 2 x + 2 cos x 1 = 0 ( 3 cos x 1 ) ( cos x + 1 ) = 0 3\cos^2{x} + 2\cos{x} - 1 = 0\quad \Rightarrow (3\cos {x} -1)(\cos{x} +1) = 0 since cos x > 0 cos x = 1 3 \cos{x} > 0\quad \Rightarrow \cos{x} = \frac {1}{3}

Therefore, the maximum value of:

2 cos 2 x 2 sin 2 x = 1 + cos x cos 2 x cos 3 x = 1 + 1 3 ( 1 3 ) 2 ( 1 3 ) 3 \quad 2\cos^2{\frac{x}{2}}\sin^2{x} = 1 + \cos{x} - \cos^2{x} - \cos^3{x} = 1 + \frac {1}{3} - (\frac {1}{3})^2 - (\frac {1}{3})^3

= 1 + 1 3 1 9 1 27 = 32 27 < 2 \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad = 1 + \frac {1}{3} - \frac {1}{9} - \frac {1}{27} = \frac {32}{27} < 2

It can be seen that LHS is always less than RHS, therefore there is 0 \boxed{0} solution.

Oh okay. The thing is that I don't know about calculus, so could you give me a method of finding the maximum value of the LHS which doesn't involve derivatives (or whatever the d d x \frac{d}{dx} represents there)? I tried converting the whole expression into cosines, and I tried sines too, but I couldn't make anything out of either. @Chew-Seong Cheong

Omkar Kulkarni - 6 years, 4 months ago

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Since the LHS of the equation is ( cos ( x ) + 1 ) ( 1 cos 2 ( x ) ) 2 1 = 2 (\cos(x) + 1)(1 - \cos^{2}(x)) \le 2*1 = 2 just from knowing that 1 cos ( x ) 1 -1 \le \cos(x) \le 1 , and since the RHS of the equation is 2 \ge 2 , we are only needing to check if the LHS can equal 2 2 .

But cos ( x ) + 1 = 2 \cos(x) + 1 = 2 only when x = 0 x = 0 , at which value 1 cos 2 ( x ) = 0 1 - \cos^{2}(x) = 0 , so the LHS of the equation will always be strictly less than 2 2 . Thus there can be no solutions.

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 4 months ago

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Oh okay. Thank you!

Omkar Kulkarni - 6 years, 4 months ago

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