Let ρ = 0 , 1 be a real number. How many ϕ ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ) exists such that the statement ρ cos θ = ρ sin ( θ + ϕ ) holds for all real θ ?
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Since the given equation is required to hold for all θ , by putting θ = 2 π , we must have ρ cos ( ϕ ) = 0 Since ρ = 0 , we have cos ( ϕ ) = 0 . Hence sin 2 ( ϕ ) = 1 . Now put θ = 0 in the above identity and square both sides to obtain ρ = sin 2 ( ϕ ) = 1 , which is a contradiction.
Note that ρ = ( − ∞ , 1 ) ∪ ( 1 , + ∞ ) ⇒ ρ = 1 .
Consider the (expression 1) ---> ρ cos θ . We need to transform expression 1 to (expression 2) ---> ρ sin ( θ + ϕ ) .
Now, By expression 1
ρ cos θ = ρ ( ρ cos θ + 0 sin θ )
Let sin ϕ = ρ and cos ϕ = 0
So, the expression 1 will become...
ρ ( sin ϕ cos θ + cos ϕ sin θ )
⇒ ρ ( sin ( θ + ϕ ) --> expression 2
Note that, cos ϕ = 0 ⇒ sin ϕ = 1
Hence, ρ = 1 ⇒ ρ = 1 .
But ρ = 1 .
So, If ρ = 1 then ϕ has no solution.
Your solution just shows that cos ϕ = 0 . You have assumed 2 equalities i.e. cos ϕ = 0 and sin ϕ = ρ , which comes from nowhere. So its logically flawed to assume two some equality and deduce the answers from them.
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The question is rather ambiguous ( θ is not defined). However, if the equation is assumed to be true for all θ , then the answer is correct (for ρ = 0 ); there is no single ϕ where the equation holds for all θ . (If ρ = 0 , all ϕ holds because the statement is 0 = 0 .)
Problem edited to reflect the assumed meaning better, and also to remove the ρ = 0 possibility.
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Let's do a trivial but crucial rearrangement of the equation:
ρ cos θ = sin ( θ + ϕ )
We first note that the addition of ϕ is a horizontal translation of the sine wave, and that the multiplication of ρ is a scaling of the (co)sine wave. Now, note that no ρ = 1 will permit a scaling of the (co)sine wave to be equal to a horizontal translation of the sine wave.
Thus, no ϕ can satisfy the equation.