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Geometry Level 3

tan 1 ( x 2 + x + 1 ) + cos 1 ( x 2 + 2 x + 1 ) = 3 π 2 \large \tan^{-1} (x^2+x+1) + \cos^{-1} (x^2+2x+1) = \frac{3\pi}2

What is the number of real solutions of x x that satisfy the equation above?


The answer is 0.

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2 solutions

Tijmen Veltman
Jun 24, 2015

For any real y y , we have tan 1 ( y ) < π 2 \tan^{-1}(y)<\frac{\pi}{2} and cos 1 ( y ) π \cos^{-1}(y)\leq \pi . Therefore tan 1 ( x 2 + x + 1 ) + cos 1 ( x 2 + 2 x + 1 ) < π 2 + π = 3 π 2 \tan^{-1}(x^2+x+1)+\cos^{-1}(x^2+2x+1)<\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi=\frac{3\pi}{2} , meaning there are 0 \boxed{0} solutions.

Consider y = 2 R y=2\in\Bbb R . We have cos 1 ( y ) = cos 1 ( 2 ) R \cos^{-1}(y)=\cos^{-1}(2)\notin\Bbb R and non-real values cannot be bounded (ordered).

Hence, your upper bound argument doesn't work for the cos 1 \cos^{-1} part.

Prasun Biswas - 5 years, 11 months ago

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Correct, but as long as cos 1 ( y ) R \cos^{-1}(y)\in\mathbb{R} (and y R y\in\mathbb{R} ), then certainly cos 1 ( y ) π \cos^{-1}(y)\leq \pi . And as you mentioned in your solution (which I probably should have done as well), we require cos 1 ( y ) R \cos^{-1}(y)\in\mathbb{R} .

Tijmen Veltman - 5 years, 11 months ago
Prasun Biswas
Jun 23, 2015

Note that the equation can be rewritten as,

arctan ( x 2 + x + 1 ) + arccos ( ( x + 1 ) 2 ) = 3 π 2 \arctan(x^2+x+1)+\arccos\left((x+1)^2\right)=\frac{3\pi}{2}

Now, by the trivial inequality , we have,

( x + 1 ) 2 0 x R ( ) (x+1)^2\geq 0~\forall~x\in\Bbb R \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (\ast)

Also, note that we have x 2 + x + 1 R x R x^2+x+1\in\Bbb R~\forall~x\in\Bbb R and since the domain of the real-valued inverse tangent function is R \Bbb R with range ( π 2 , π 2 ) \left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right) , we have,

arctan ( x 2 + x + 1 ) ( π 2 , π 2 ) x R \arctan(x^2+x+1)\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)~\forall~x\in\Bbb R

Consequently, arccos ( ( x + 1 ) 2 ) \arccos\left((x+1)^2\right) must give a real value for LHS to be real since if the arccos \arccos part doesn't output a real value, we will have sum of a real and a non-real value in LHS thus resulting in a non-real value which would never equal 3 π 2 \frac{3\pi}{2} which is real.

Hence, we also have ( x + 1 ) 2 1 (x+1)^2\leq 1 since the domain of the real-valued inverse cosine function is [ 1 , 1 ] [-1,1] . Combined with result ( ) (\ast) obtained earlier, we have ( x + 1 ) 2 [ 0 , 1 ] (x+1)^2\in [0,1] .

But recall that if we have a value m [ 0 , 1 ] m\in [0,1] , then arccos ( m ) [ 0 , π 2 ] \arccos(m)\in \left[0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right] .

So, if we denote a = arctan ( x 2 + x + 1 ) a=\arctan(x^2+x+1) and b = arccos ( ( x + 1 ) 2 ) b=\arccos\left((x+1)^2\right) , for a + b a+b to be real, we should have a ( π 2 , π 2 ) a\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right) and b [ 0 , π 2 ] b\in\left[0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right] which gives that if x R x\in\Bbb R , we have,

a + b R a ( π 2 , π 2 ) b [ 0 , π 2 ] a + b ( π 2 , π ) a+b\in\Bbb R\iff a\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)~\land~b\in\left[0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right]\implies a+b\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\pi\right)

and the equation asks for real solution x x such that a + b = 3 π 2 a+b=\frac{3\pi}{2} .

But 3 π 2 > π \frac{3\pi}{2}\gt\pi . Hence, the equation has no real solutions .


Clarifications:

  • arccos ( x ) = cos 1 ( x ) \arccos(x)=\cos^{-1}(x) is used to denote the inverse cosine function (arccosine function).

  • arctan ( x ) = tan 1 ( x ) \arctan(x)=\tan^{-1}(x) is used to denote the inverse tangent function (arctangent function).

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