tan − 1 ( x 2 + x + 1 ) + cos − 1 ( x 2 + 2 x + 1 ) = 2 3 π
What is the number of real solutions of x that satisfy the equation above?
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Consider y = 2 ∈ R . We have cos − 1 ( y ) = cos − 1 ( 2 ) ∈ / R and non-real values cannot be bounded (ordered).
Hence, your upper bound argument doesn't work for the cos − 1 part.
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Correct, but as long as cos − 1 ( y ) ∈ R (and y ∈ R ), then certainly cos − 1 ( y ) ≤ π . And as you mentioned in your solution (which I probably should have done as well), we require cos − 1 ( y ) ∈ R .
Note that the equation can be rewritten as,
arctan ( x 2 + x + 1 ) + arccos ( ( x + 1 ) 2 ) = 2 3 π
Now, by the trivial inequality , we have,
( x + 1 ) 2 ≥ 0 ∀ x ∈ R ( ∗ )
Also, note that we have x 2 + x + 1 ∈ R ∀ x ∈ R and since the domain of the real-valued inverse tangent function is R with range ( − 2 π , 2 π ) , we have,
arctan ( x 2 + x + 1 ) ∈ ( − 2 π , 2 π ) ∀ x ∈ R
Consequently, arccos ( ( x + 1 ) 2 ) must give a real value for LHS to be real since if the arccos part doesn't output a real value, we will have sum of a real and a non-real value in LHS thus resulting in a non-real value which would never equal 2 3 π which is real.
Hence, we also have ( x + 1 ) 2 ≤ 1 since the domain of the real-valued inverse cosine function is [ − 1 , 1 ] . Combined with result ( ∗ ) obtained earlier, we have ( x + 1 ) 2 ∈ [ 0 , 1 ] .
But recall that if we have a value m ∈ [ 0 , 1 ] , then arccos ( m ) ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ] .
So, if we denote a = arctan ( x 2 + x + 1 ) and b = arccos ( ( x + 1 ) 2 ) , for a + b to be real, we should have a ∈ ( − 2 π , 2 π ) and b ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ] which gives that if x ∈ R , we have,
a + b ∈ R ⟺ a ∈ ( − 2 π , 2 π ) ∧ b ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ] ⟹ a + b ∈ ( − 2 π , π )
and the equation asks for real solution x such that a + b = 2 3 π .
But 2 3 π > π . Hence, the equation has no real solutions .
Clarifications:
arccos ( x ) = cos − 1 ( x ) is used to denote the inverse cosine function (arccosine function).
arctan ( x ) = tan − 1 ( x ) is used to denote the inverse tangent function (arctangent function).
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For any real y , we have tan − 1 ( y ) < 2 π and cos − 1 ( y ) ≤ π . Therefore tan − 1 ( x 2 + x + 1 ) + cos − 1 ( x 2 + 2 x + 1 ) < 2 π + π = 2 3 π , meaning there are 0 solutions.