If x and y are non-zero numbers such that x > y , which of the following is always true?
(A) x 1 < y 1
(B) y x > 1
(C) ∣ x ∣ > ∣ y ∣
(D) x y 2 1 > x 2 y 1
(E) y x > x y
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remember, it told that x and y are non-negative...
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it is not. It is told that x and y are non-zero, not non-negative. Therefore answer D is correct.
why is B not correct ? If you multiply the equation by y, it becomes x>y, which is the given fact in the question.
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the problem didn't say that x,y must be positive numbers, if the two sides both times a negative number, the direction of the greater than sign will change.
If x=-1 and y=-3, then 1/-9 > 1/-3 which is not true... In my opinion the correct answer is C ooops, my mistake... correct answer is still D :D
What do you do with the case x=1 and y=-1?
I get the computations but I think if x were to be a negative number and y a positive number then, L.H.S would be negative and the R.H.S will remain a positive number. Then how does the inequality hold?
if x = 1 and y = -1, none of them are true
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If x = 1 ; y = − 1 , then x y 2 1 = 1 > − 1 = x 2 y 1 .
If x equal to 0 and y equal to -1 then D is not correct
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The problem state that: "If x and y are non-zero numbers".
let x = 0 and y=-1. Then what?
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The task states that x and y shall be non-zero numbers, therefore x cannot be 0.
yeah D is clearly true. gotcha
divide the inequality by (xy)^2 we get option D
One question: Is (xy)^2 the same as x^2 y^2 ?
It is also worth noting that (xy)^2 must be positive as dividing by a negative value would reverse the inequality.
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(xy)^2 will always be positive since squaring a negative number results in a positive number
Due to a case of trivial inequality, for all real numbers n, n 2 ≥ 0
and we know that x > y
Thus y 2 < x 2
And the reciprocal of the inequality y 2 < x 2 will be y 2 1 > x 2 1
And thus option D is correct
Your second line is not necessarily true. Let x=-1 and y=-4. Then x>y but it is not true x^2>y^2.
Why is "C" not correct?
Here, Keep x=2 and y=3 Then check the possible solutions. Now,keep x=-2 and y=-3 and recheck whether your solution holds true here too.
Choosing x as 1 and y as -1 eliminates all bar D instantly.
If you multiply both side of inequality (D) by xy, then it will be reduced to inequality (A). Then (A) and (D) are the same, can I make this way?
Just choose x and y as 2 positive integers for easy calculations, then 2 negative integers such that x > y
For negative values you will see true nature of equations and find out that only option D gives correct output in both cases.
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If choosing x = 1 ; y = − 2 , the inequalities A , B , C are not true.
If choosing x = 4 ; y = − 1 , the inequality E is not true.
We have: x > y ⇔ x 2 y 2 x > x 2 y 2 y ⇔ x y 2 1 > x 2 y 1
So, the inequality D is always true.