1 + a 4 1 + 1 + b 4 1 + 1 + c 4 1 + 1 + d 4 1 = 1
Let a , b , c and d be positive real numbers satisfying the equation above, find the minimum value of a b c d .
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Great solution. FYI, there is a similar question before. From Europe With Love .
I couldn't prove that question initially, but now I can. Thanks for the enlightenment!
great solution, I've never thought of this before
It can also be done using AM-GM only.
We have, 1 + a 4 1 + 1 + b 4 1 + 1 + c 4 1 + 1 + d 4 1 = 1
So, from here, we get the following four things :
1 + a 4 1 + 1 + b 4 1 + 1 + c 4 1 = 1 + d 4 d 4 ..... ( 1 )
1 + a 4 1 + 1 + b 4 1 + 1 + d 4 1 = 1 + c 4 c 4 ..... ( 2 )
1 + a 4 1 + 1 + c 4 1 + 1 + d 4 1 = 1 + b 4 b 4 ..... ( 3 )
1 + b 4 1 + 1 + c 4 1 + 1 + d 4 1 = 1 + a 4 a 4 ..... ( 2 )
So, applying AM-GM on each of the statements ( 1 ) , ( 2 ) , ( 3 ) , ( 4 ) , we have :
1 + d 4 d 4 ≥ 3 1 + a 4 3 1 + b 4 3 1 + c 4 3 ... ( A )
1 + c 4 c 4 ≥ 3 1 + a 4 3 1 + b 4 3 1 + d 4 3 ... ( B )
1 + b 4 b 4 ≥ 3 1 + a 4 3 1 + c 4 3 1 + d 4 3 ... ( C )
1 + a 4 a 4 ≥ 3 1 + b 4 3 1 + c 4 3 1 + d 4 3 ... ( D )
Multiplying ( A ) , ( B ) , ( C ) , ( D ) , we get :
( a b c d ) 4 ≥ 3 4
⇒ a b c d ≥ 3
Can also be done by putting a=b=c=d.
How do you know that it can be done like that? It generally works for symmetric cases but not always.
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Let a 2 = tan ( α ) , b 2 = tan ( β ) , c 2 = tan ( γ ) , d 2 = tan ( δ ) .Then cos 2 ( α ) + cos 2 ( β ) + cos 2 ( γ ) + cos 2 ( δ ) = 1 .
Now, by the AM-GM inequality, sin 2 ( α ) = cos 2 ( β ) + cos 2 ( γ ) + cos 2 ( δ ) ≥ 3 ( cos ( β ) cos ( γ ) cos ( δ ) ) 2 / 3 .
Multiplying this and other similar inequalities we get, sin 2 ( α ) sin 2 ( β ) sin 2 ( γ ) sin 2 ( δ ) ≥ 8 1 cos 2 ( α ) cos 2 ( β ) cos 2 ( γ ) cos 2 ( δ ) or tan ( α ) tan ( β ) tan ( γ ) tan ( δ ) ≥ 9 .
Finally, a b c d = tan ( α ) tan ( β ) tan ( γ ) tan ( δ ) ≥ 3 .