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Calculus Level 2

The value of the integral 0 π / 2 d x 2 + cos x \int_0^{\pi/2}\dfrac{\text dx}{2+\cos x} can be expressed in the form π A B C \dfrac{\pi^A\sqrt{B}}{C} where A A , B B , C C are positive integers and B B is not divisible by the square of any prime. Find the value of A + B + C . A+B+C.


The answer is 13.

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2 solutions

Jubayer Nirjhor
Sep 13, 2014

The method that works best is Weierstrass substitution (hope the spelling's correct). It starts by defining t = tan ( x / 2 ) t=\tan(x/2) . Then we have cos x = 1 2 sin 2 ( x / 2 ) = 1 2 t 2 sec 2 ( x / 2 ) = 1 2 t 2 1 + t 2 = 1 t 2 1 + t 2 . \cos x=1-2\sin^2(x/2)=1-\dfrac{2t^2}{\sec^2(x/2)}=1-\dfrac{2t^2}{1+t^2}=\dfrac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}. Furthermore we have d t d x = 1 2 sec 2 ( x / 2 ) = 1 + t 2 2 d x = 2 d t 1 + t 2 . \dfrac{\text d t}{\text d x}=\dfrac 1 2\sec^2(x/2)=\dfrac{1+t^2}{2}\implies \text d x=\dfrac{2~\text d t}{1+t^2}. Subbing all these and simplifying yields d x 2 + cos x = 2 d t 3 + t 2 . \int \dfrac{\text d x}{2+\cos x}=\int \dfrac{2~\text d t}{3+t^2}. Now let t = 3 tan z t=\sqrt 3 \tan z so that d t = 3 sec 2 z d z \text d t=\sqrt 3 \sec^2 z~\text d z . Subbing these gives 2 d t 3 + t 2 = 2 3 sec 2 z d z 3 + 3 tan 2 z = 2 3 sec 2 z d z 3 sec 2 z = 2 d z 3 = 2 z 3 + C . \int \dfrac{2~\text d t}{3+t^2}=2\int \dfrac{\sqrt 3\sec^2 z~\text d z }{3+3\tan^2 z}=2\int\dfrac{\sqrt 3 \sec^2 z~\text d z}{3\sec^2 z}=2\int\dfrac{\text d z}{\sqrt 3}=\dfrac{2z}{\sqrt3}+\text C. Now subbing back z = arctan ( t 3 ) = arctan [ tan ( x / 2 ) 3 ] z=\arctan\left(\dfrac{t}{\sqrt 3}\right)=\arctan\left[\dfrac{\tan(x/2)}{\sqrt 3}\right] gives d x 2 + cos x = 2 3 arctan [ tan ( x / 2 ) 3 ] + C . \int \dfrac{\text d x}{2+\cos x}=\dfrac{2}{\sqrt 3}\arctan\left[\dfrac{\tan(x/2)}{\sqrt 3}\right]+\text C. So plugging in the values we get π 3 / 9 \pi\sqrt 3/9 . Hence the answer is 13 \boxed{13} .

Great solution! You spelled Weierstrass correctly (and the math was accurate).

Trevor B. - 6 years, 9 months ago

T h e f i r s t s t e p c o s x = 1 2 s i n 2 x y o u c o u l d h a v e w r i t t e n d i r e c t l y cos x = 1 t a n 2 x 2 1 + t a n 2 x 2 a n d t h e n s u b s t i t u t i n g f o r t a n 2 x 2 The\quad first\quad step\quad cosx\quad =\quad 1-2{ sin }^{ 2 }x\\ you\quad could\quad have\quad written\quad directly\\ \cos { x } =\frac { 1-{ tan }^{ 2 }\frac { x }{ 2 } }{ 1+{ tan }^{ 2 }\frac { x }{ 2 } } \quad and\quad then\quad substituting\quad for\quad { tan }^{ 2 }\frac { x }{ 2 }

samarth sangam - 6 years, 9 months ago

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The identity you've shown is not so well known, so many people would have a hard time understanding the step. Thanks for the suggestion though.

Jubayer Nirjhor - 6 years, 9 months ago

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OK but a great solution

samarth sangam - 6 years, 9 months ago

It think it's very common identity. We use it in class very often.

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years ago

i got the answer as 16..............even i used the same method of converting sin or cos into half angles of tan...........i got the last expression as (1/(3)^(1/2))arctan(tan(x/2))

Harikrishna Nair - 5 years, 6 months ago

Solved exactly the same way. Neat and Elegant .

Anurag Pandey - 3 years ago

EXACTLY THE SAME WAY THAT I FOLLOWED

Priyesh Pandey - 6 years, 8 months ago

I did the same way .. but a little different and I think your solution just follows a basic algorithm to solve the problem and for the others to learn .. your solution is good.. I got problem with typing the solution the way you did ... the LATEX problem .. actually quite busy but ya will soon catch up with it and also start posting solution like the way you did. By the way nice representation of your solution . Precise and clear is the perfect word to describe it. - ALIEN

Anurag Pandey - 5 years, 2 months ago
Naren Bhandari
Oct 5, 2017

I = 1 2 + c o s x d x I= \displaystyle\int\frac{1}{2+cosx}\,dx I = 1 1 + ( 1 + c o s x ) d x I=\displaystyle\int\frac{1}{1+(1+cosx)}\,dx I = 1 s i n 2 ( x / 2 ) + c o s 2 ( x / 2 ) + 2 c o s 2 ( x / 2 ) d x I=\displaystyle\int\frac{1}{sin^2(x/2) +cos^2(x/2)+2cos^2(x/2)}\,dx \ I = 1 s i n 2 ( x / 2 ) + 3 c o s 2 ( x / 2 ) d x I= \displaystyle\int\frac{1}{sin^2 (x/2)+3cos^2(x/2)}\,dx Multiplying and dividing by s e c 2 ( x / 2 ) sec^2(x/2) in above expression we get I = s e c 2 ( x / 2 ) t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) + 3 d x I = \displaystyle\int\frac{sec^2(x/2)}{tan^2(x/2)+3}\,dx Now substituting and differentiating t a n ( x / 2 ) = y s e c 2 ( x / 2 ) d x = 2 d y tan(x/2) = y \Rightarrow sec^2(x/2)\,dx = 2\,dy I = 2 y 2 + 3 d y I=\displaystyle\int\frac{2}{y^2+3}\,dy = 2 d y y 2 + ( 3 ) 2 =2\displaystyle \int\frac{\,dy}{y^2+(\sqrt{3})^2} Applying upper and lower limits in above integration we get : I = 2 0 π / 2 d y y 2 + ( 3 ) 2 I =2\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{\,dy}{y^2+(\sqrt{3})^2} = 2 3 [ t a n 1 ( y 3 ) ] 0 π / 2 = \frac{2}{\sqrt 3}\left[tan^{-1}\left(\frac{y}{\sqrt 3}\right)\right]_{0}^{\pi/2} Replugging y = t a n ( x / 2 ) y = tan(x/2) we get as follows; I = 2 3 [ t a n 1 ( t a n ( x / 2 ) 3 ) ] 0 π / 2 I =\frac{2}{\sqrt 3}\left[tan^{-1}\left(\frac{tan(x/2)}{\sqrt 3}\right)\right]_{0}^{\pi/2}

Setting the upper limit and lower limit we get as I = 2 3 [ t a n 1 ( 1 3 ) t a n 1 ( 0 3 ) ] I = \frac{2}{\sqrt 3}\left[tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt 3}\right)-tan^{-1}\left(\frac{0}{\sqrt 3}\right)\right] I = π 3 9 I = \frac{\pi\sqrt 3}{9}

Therefore A + B + C = 1 + 9 + 3 13 A+B+C= 1+9+3\implies 13 .

The problem can be solved quickly by putting c o s x = 1 t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) 1 + t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) cosx = \frac{1-tan^2(x/2)}{1+tan^2(x/2)} that directly makes us jump to s e c 2 ( x / 2 ) t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) + 3 d x \displaystyle\int\frac{sec^2(x/2)}{tan^2(x/2)+3}\,dx .

i love this solution!

Elijah Mueller - 2 years, 5 months ago

what led you to this solution? it doesn't seem particularly intuitive.

Andrew Ens - 2 years, 4 months ago

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