The value of the integral ∫ 0 π / 2 2 + cos x d x can be expressed in the form C π A B where A , B , C are positive integers and B is not divisible by the square of any prime. Find the value of A + B + C .
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Great solution! You spelled Weierstrass correctly (and the math was accurate).
T h e f i r s t s t e p c o s x = 1 − 2 s i n 2 x y o u c o u l d h a v e w r i t t e n d i r e c t l y cos x = 1 + t a n 2 2 x 1 − t a n 2 2 x a n d t h e n s u b s t i t u t i n g f o r t a n 2 2 x
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The identity you've shown is not so well known, so many people would have a hard time understanding the step. Thanks for the suggestion though.
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OK but a great solution
It think it's very common identity. We use it in class very often.
i got the answer as 16..............even i used the same method of converting sin or cos into half angles of tan...........i got the last expression as (1/(3)^(1/2))arctan(tan(x/2))
Solved exactly the same way. Neat and Elegant .
EXACTLY THE SAME WAY THAT I FOLLOWED
I did the same way .. but a little different and I think your solution just follows a basic algorithm to solve the problem and for the others to learn .. your solution is good.. I got problem with typing the solution the way you did ... the LATEX problem .. actually quite busy but ya will soon catch up with it and also start posting solution like the way you did. By the way nice representation of your solution . Precise and clear is the perfect word to describe it. - ALIEN
I = ∫ 2 + c o s x 1 d x I = ∫ 1 + ( 1 + c o s x ) 1 d x I = ∫ s i n 2 ( x / 2 ) + c o s 2 ( x / 2 ) + 2 c o s 2 ( x / 2 ) 1 d x \ I = ∫ s i n 2 ( x / 2 ) + 3 c o s 2 ( x / 2 ) 1 d x Multiplying and dividing by s e c 2 ( x / 2 ) in above expression we get I = ∫ t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) + 3 s e c 2 ( x / 2 ) d x Now substituting and differentiating t a n ( x / 2 ) = y ⇒ s e c 2 ( x / 2 ) d x = 2 d y I = ∫ y 2 + 3 2 d y = 2 ∫ y 2 + ( 3 ) 2 d y Applying upper and lower limits in above integration we get : I = 2 ∫ 0 π / 2 y 2 + ( 3 ) 2 d y = 3 2 [ t a n − 1 ( 3 y ) ] 0 π / 2 Replugging y = t a n ( x / 2 ) we get as follows; I = 3 2 [ t a n − 1 ( 3 t a n ( x / 2 ) ) ] 0 π / 2
Setting the upper limit and lower limit we get as I = 3 2 [ t a n − 1 ( 3 1 ) − t a n − 1 ( 3 0 ) ] I = 9 π 3
Therefore A + B + C = 1 + 9 + 3 ⟹ 1 3 .
The problem can be solved quickly by putting c o s x = 1 + t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) 1 − t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) that directly makes us jump to ∫ t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) + 3 s e c 2 ( x / 2 ) d x .
i love this solution!
what led you to this solution? it doesn't seem particularly intuitive.
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The method that works best is Weierstrass substitution (hope the spelling's correct). It starts by defining t = tan ( x / 2 ) . Then we have cos x = 1 − 2 sin 2 ( x / 2 ) = 1 − sec 2 ( x / 2 ) 2 t 2 = 1 − 1 + t 2 2 t 2 = 1 + t 2 1 − t 2 . Furthermore we have d x d t = 2 1 sec 2 ( x / 2 ) = 2 1 + t 2 ⟹ d x = 1 + t 2 2 d t . Subbing all these and simplifying yields ∫ 2 + cos x d x = ∫ 3 + t 2 2 d t . Now let t = 3 tan z so that d t = 3 sec 2 z d z . Subbing these gives ∫ 3 + t 2 2 d t = 2 ∫ 3 + 3 tan 2 z 3 sec 2 z d z = 2 ∫ 3 sec 2 z 3 sec 2 z d z = 2 ∫ 3 d z = 3 2 z + C . Now subbing back z = arctan ( 3 t ) = arctan [ 3 tan ( x / 2 ) ] gives ∫ 2 + cos x d x = 3 2 arctan [ 3 tan ( x / 2 ) ] + C . So plugging in the values we get π 3 / 9 . Hence the answer is 1 3 .