Two versus One

Find the smallest positive integer n n for which

n 50 + ( n + 1 ) 50 > ( n + 2 ) 50 . n^{50} + (n+1)^{50} \gt (n+2)^{50}.


Inspiration


The answer is 103.

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2 solutions

Letting m = n + 1 m = n + 1 , the given equation can be rewritten as

m 50 > ( m + 1 ) 50 ( m 1 ) 50 1 > ( 1 + 1 m ) 50 ( 1 1 m ) 50 m^{50} \gt (m + 1)^{50} - (m - 1)^{50} \Longrightarrow 1 \gt \left(1 + \dfrac{1}{m}\right)^{50} - \left(1 - \dfrac{1}{m}\right)^{50} \Longrightarrow

1 > k = 0 50 ( 50 k ) 1 m k k = 0 50 ( 50 k ) ( 1 ) k m k 1 \gt \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{50} \dbinom{50}{k}\dfrac{1}{m^{k}} - \sum_{k=0}^{50} \dbinom{50}{k} \dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{m^{k}} \Longrightarrow

1 > 100 m + 39200 m 3 + 4237520 m 5 + O ( m 7 ) 1 \gt \dfrac{100}{m} + \dfrac{39200}{m^{3}} + \dfrac{4237520}{m^{5}} + O(m^{-7}) \Longrightarrow

m > 100 + 39200 m 2 + 4237520 m 4 + O ( m 6 ) m \gt 100 + \dfrac{39200}{m^{2}} + \dfrac{4237520}{m^{4}} + O(m^{-6}) \Longrightarrow

m 2 ( m 100 ) > 39200 + 4237520 m 2 + O ( m 4 ) m^{2}(m - 100) \gt 39200 + \dfrac{4237520}{m^{2}} + O(m^{-4}) .

Now from the inspiration problem we know that m > 100 m \gt 100 , so the RHS of the equation will max out at about 39200 + 425 39200 + 425 , so we are looking for the least m m such that m 2 ( m 100 ) > 39625 m^{2}(m - 100) \gt 39625 . But as m > 100 m \gt 100 we have that m 2 ( m 100 ) > 10000 ( m 100 ) m^{2}(m - 100) \gt 10000(m - 100) , so m = 104 m = 104 is the least m m that will accomplish the task, giving us n = m 1 = 103 n = m - 1 = \boxed{103} .

(Just as a check, note that 3 × 10 3 2 = 31827 3 \times 103^{2} = 31827 and 4 × 10 4 2 = 43264 4 \times 104^{2} = 43264 .)

Moderator note:

This problem ties together several different ideas in mathematics. Having a strong understanding of the basics allows us to make quick deductions on how best to proceed approximating the answer.

If you do not know initially that m is greater then 100 then how you will proceed ?

Kushal Bose - 4 years, 2 months ago

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I suppose I didn't really need to reference the inspiration problem here, since from the second to last inequality in my calculation it is clear that m > 100 m \gt 100 . in which case m 2 ( m 100 ) > 39625 m^{2}(m - 100) \gt 39625 is an appropriate inequality to work with. I suppose we could take one more step and let k = m 100 > 0 k = m - 100 \gt 0 , giving us

( 100 + k ) 2 × k > 39625 (100 + k)^{2}\times k \gt 39625 \Longrightarrow

k > 39625 ( 100 + k ) 2 > 39625 10 0 2 = 3.9625 k 4 k \gt \dfrac{39625}{(100 + k)^{2}} \gt \dfrac{39625}{100^{2}} = 3.9625 \Longrightarrow k \ge 4 .

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 2 months ago

But doesn't n = 10 make the initial inequality wrong?

Loppukilpailija - 4 years, 2 months ago

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Sorry! Someone completely changed my original problem without any input from me. The powers should be 50 50 and not 5 5 . I've changed it back to its original form.

P.S.. I've noticed your report. Hopefully you'l get credit for a correct answer soon. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 2 months ago

Sir, I tried to solve it in a different way but ended up in a confusion. Please let me know where I did mistake.Here is my approach. Take logarithm on both sides, we get Log(n^50+(n+1)^50) > log((n+2)^50) We know that log( a+b)=log a log b , we get Log(n^50) log((n+1)^50) > log ((n+2)^50) We know that log(a^x)=x log a, we get 50 50 log (n) * log (n+1) > 50 log (n+2) Now cancelling 50 and applying log a * log b= log (a+b), we get 50 log(2n+1) > log (n+2) =>(2n+1)^50 > (n+2)

To satisfy the above equation, the least value of n be 1. But if I substitute n=1 in the given equation, it is not satisfying.

Please let me know the mistake I made in solving the problem

chetan kakarlapudi - 4 years, 2 months ago

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The rule for logs is that log ( a b ) = log ( a ) + log ( b ) \log(ab) = \log(a) + \log(b) , and not the equation log ( a + b ) = log ( a ) log ( b ) \log(a + b) = \log(a)\log(b) . Try a = b = 1 a = b = 1 in your equation, for example. log ( a + b ) \log(a + b) would equal log ( 2 ) 0 \log(2) \ne 0 , but log ( a ) + log ( b ) = log ( 1 ) + log ( 1 ) = 0 \log(a) + \log(b) = \log(1) + \log(1) = 0 .

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 2 months ago

...or you just go use Excel like I did

Gabriel Collares - 4 years, 2 months ago

This is whack! What class would one normally have to have completed to know this?

Thomas N Dowling - 4 years, 2 months ago

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I would think a high school senior on the math team would have the knowledge and problem-solving ability to solve this analytically.

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 2 months ago

what is o ( m 7 ) o(m^{-7} ) ? very nice problem btw.

Mehdi K. - 4 years, 2 months ago

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This is known as Big_O notation . So O ( m 7 ) O(m^{-7}) means that all the remaining powers in the series are 7 \le -7 .

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 2 months ago

What is the operation involved in the summation of 1/m^k from 0 to 50 and why? Also, i don't get the big_o notation. Thanks!

Patrick Cuenco - 4 years, 1 month ago

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The summations are the expansions of ( 1 + 1 m ) 50 (1 + \frac{1}{m})^{50} and ( 1 1 m ) 50 (1 - \frac{1}{m})^{50} using the Binomial Theorem .

The Big-O notation O ( m a ) O(m^a) means that all the remaining powers in the series are a \le a . This is meant to indicate thus their contributions to the sum are increasingly negligible, and the Big-O notation just "collects" them all in one expression.

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 1 month ago
Ed Sirett
Apr 6, 2017

Brute force it in 3ms!
I do hope I get a lot of downvotes for 'cheating'

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#include <fstream>
#include <iostream>
#include <gmpxx.h>

using namespace std;

void pow50( int base , mpz_class& retval )
{
retval=1;
for (int i=1; i<=50; i++)
     retval *= base;
}

int main()
{
    mpz_class a,b,c;
    int n=0;
    do {
         n += 1;
         pow50(n, a);
         pow50(n+1, b);
         pow50(n+2, c);
    } while( a+b < c);
    cout <<  "n = " << n << endl;
    return 0;
}

Gives:
n = 103
Process returned 0 (0x0) execution time : 0.003 s

I cheated too, but I didn't have the time to write a program. Thank god for google's feature of not having to press enter to give an answer.

harrison truscott - 4 years, 2 months ago

Nothing wrong with brute force, especially when it confirms the analytic result. :)

Thanks for posting your program. (+1)

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 2 months ago

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power = 50
for i in range (1,1000):
    if (i)**power+(i+1)**power>(i+2)**power:
        print i
        break

1
103

Michael Fitzgerald - 3 years, 3 months ago

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.I did the same way but on Keisan Online Calculator.
Tried 1,1,100; 1001,1,100; 50,1,200, just not to give much work to calculator !!! Used function n^50+(n+1)^50 - (n+2)^50 . Checked for change of sign.

Niranjan Khanderia - 2 years, 3 months ago

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