∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ( x y z ) x y z d x d y d z = ?
Give your answer to 3 decimal places.
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Can u explain 2nd line
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I am applying the multinomial expansion ( X + Y + Z ) n = a + b + c = n a , b , c ≥ 0 ∑ a ! b ! c ! n ! X a Y b Z c to the term ( ln ( x y z ) ) n = ( ln x + ln y + ln z ) n
But how to calculate last sequence without calculator or any else?
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Well, I don't think the answer is rational, and therefore any calculation, even from a formula, will require a calculator.
If you have a definite value of this Sophomore's Dream-like sum, post it...
Of course, if you want an exact solution to a problem, post it in a way that requires an exact solution. WA can evaluate this integral numerically. I took the time to express it as a highly convergent sum, so that not many terms are needed to obtain 3DP.
How did you get from the third to the fourth line? Is this an well known identity?
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To integrate ∫ 0 1 x m ( ln x ) m d x try integration by parts...
or u can use Gamma Function ∫ 0 1 x m ( ln x ) n d x let u = ln x then ∫ − ∞ 0 e ( m + 1 ) u u n d u let again − t = ( m + 1 ) u then − m + 1 1 ∫ ∞ 0 e − t ( m + 1 − t ) n d t = ( − 1 ) n ( m + 1 1 ) n + 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e − t t n d t = ( m + 1 ) n + 1 ( − 1 ) n Γ ( n + 1 ) = ( m + 1 ) n + 1 ( − 1 ) n n !
Every time I see a great solution by you, I am blown away! You have got to be the smartest mathematician I have ever seen at work. (Just so you know, I just used Wolfram Alpha to approximate the integral for me. Let's just say it replaces another one that I should've gotten right.) I thought to use e , but I always forget how helpful using series can be for integration. But even if I had really tried hard on this problem and thought to use series, I probably would have just assumed the approach wouldn't have worked here and given up. Sometimes I wonder if you are only one person or a mathematician army.
Which of your solutions is your favorite?
You lost me right at the first step.
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I am writing ( x y z ) x y z = e x y z ln ( x y z ) , and expanding the exponential.
To approximate the solution first we reduce it to a single integral: Let u = x y , then d u = y d x and thus ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ( x y z ) x y z d x d y d z = ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 y y ( u z ) u z d u d y d z = ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ u 1 y ( u z ) u z d y d u d z = ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 lo g u 1 ( u z ) u z d u d z Similarly, let's take w = u z ⟹ d w = z d u ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 lo g u 1 ( u z ) u z d u d z = ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 z z lo g w z w w d w d z = ∫ 0 1 ∫ w 1 z lo g w z w w d z d w = 2 1 ∫ 0 1 w w lo g ( w ) 2 d w
So the triple integral is equal to the single integral 2 1 ∫ 0 1 x x lo g ( x ) 2 d x . We can also find a series expansion through standard methods:
2 1 ∫ 0 1 x x lo g ( x ) 2 d x = 2 1 ∫ 0 1 e x lo g x lo g ( x ) 2 d x = 2 1 ∫ 0 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! x n lo g ( x ) n + 2 d x = 2 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 ∫ 0 1 x n lo g ( x ) n + 2 d x = 2 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 ( n + 1 ) n + 3 ( − 1 ) n + 2 ( n + 2 ) ! = 2 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) n + 3 ( − 1 ) n ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) = 2 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) n + 2 ( − 1 ) n ( n + 2 )
Thus: ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ( x y z ) x y z d x d y d z = 2 1 ∫ 0 1 x x lo g ( x ) 2 d x = 2 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) n + 2 ( − 1 ) n ( n + 2 )
Used Wolfram alpha 3d integration to get the desired answer = 0.83493
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We have I = ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ( x y z ) x y z d x d y d z = n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ( x y z ln ( x y z ) ) n d x d y d z = a , b , c = 0 ∑ ∞ a ! b ! c ! 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 ∫ 0 1 x a + b + c y a + b + c z a + b + c ( ln x ) a ( ln y ) b ( ln z ) c d x d y d z = a , b , c = 0 ∑ ∞ a ! b ! c ! 1 ∫ 0 ! x a + b + c ( ln x ) a d x ∫ 0 1 y a + b + c ( ln y ) b d y ∫ 0 1 z a + b + c ( ln z ) c d z = a , b , c = 0 ∑ ∞ a ! b ! c ! 1 × ( a + b + c + 1 ) a + 1 ( − 1 ) a a ! × ( a + b + c + 1 ) b + 1 ( − 1 ) b b ! × ( a + b + c + 1 ) c + 1 ( − 1 ) c c ! = a , b , c = 0 ∑ ∞ ( a + b + c + 1 ) a + b + c + 3 ( − 1 ) a + b + c = N = 0 ∑ ∞ ( N + 1 ) N + 3 ( − 1 ) N × 2 1 ( N + 1 ) ( N + 2 ) = 2 1 N = 0 ∑ ∞ ( N + 1 ) N + 2 ( − 1 ) N ( N + 2 ) = 0 . 8 3 4 9 3