n + n 2 + n 3 + n 4 = ( n + 2 ) !
What integer value of n satisfies the equation above?
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Nicely done. But for the sake of clarity, you should show that n + 2 must be of value(s) ± 1 , ± 5 and explain why 3 values are refused.
Start by factoring the given expression,after you are done you would have got: [ n ( 1 + n 2 ) ( 1 + n ) ] = ( n + 2 ) ! ⟹ ( n 2 + 1 ) = ( n + 2 ) ( n − 1 ) ! ( cancelling ’n’ and ’(n+1)’from L.H.S and R.H.S) ⟹ n − 1 n 2 + 1 = ( n + 2 ) ( n − 2 ) ! = an integer ⟹ ( n − 1 ) ∣ ( n 2 + 1 ) ⟹ ( n − 1 ) ∣ n ( n − 1 ) + n + 1 ⟹ ( n − 1 ) ∣ ( n + 1 ) ⟹ ( n − 1 ) ∣ ( n − 1 ) + 2 ⟹ ( n − 1 ) ∣ 2 After checking all the possible cases,only 3 satisfies the given conditions.
This solution has been marked wrong. You have only shown that n must be odd. However you did not show why n = 3 is the unique solution.
n + n 2 + n 3 + n 4 = ( n + 2 ) !
n 2 + n 3 + n 4 + n 5 = n ( n + 2 ) !
( n + 2 ) ! − n ( n + 2 ) ! = n − n 5
( 1 − n ) ( n + 2 ) ! = n ( 1 − n 4 )
( n + 2 ) ! = 1 − n n ( 1 + n 2 ) ( 1 − n 2 )
( n + 2 ) ! = 1 − n n ( 1 + n 2 ) ( 1 + n ) ( 1 − n )
( n + 2 ) ! = n ( n + 1 ) ( n 2 + 1 )
( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) n ( n − 1 ) ! = n ( n + 1 ) ( n 2 + 1 )
( n + 2 ) ( n − 1 ) ! = n 2 + 1
( n − 1 ) ! = n + 2 n 2 + 1
( n − 1 ) ! = n + 2 ( n 2 + 1 ) + ( 4 − 4 )
( n − 1 ) ! = n + 2 ( n 2 − 4 ) + ( 4 + 1 )
( n − 1 ) ! = n + 2 ( n − 2 ) ( n + 2 ) + 5
( n − 1 ) ! = ( n − 2 ) + n + 2 5
n is an integer ∴ ( n + 2 ) is also an integer. n + 2 5 is also an integer.
n + 2 = − 5 , − 1 , 1 , 5 → n = − 7 , − 3 , − 1 , 3
The factorial function is defined for all non-negative integers:
( n − 1 ) ≥ 0 ∴ n ≥ 1
n = 3
3 + 3 2 + 3 3 + 3 4 = ( 3 + 2 ) !
1 2 0 = 1 2 0
n = 3
Hence, the result has to be "n=3"
Okay, so first let's write the right hand side in a more suitable way:
n + n 2 + n 3 + n 4 = ( n + n 2 ) + n 2 ∗ ( n + n 2 ) = ( n + n 2 ) ∗ ( 1 + n 2 ) = n ∗ ( n + 1 ) ∗ ( n 2 + 1 )
From this, divide both sides by the product n ∗ ( n + 1 ) ∗ ( n + 2 )
We then get:
n + 2 n 2 + 1 = ( n − 1 ) !
The left hand side is an integer, and so must be the right hand side. Let's once more re-write the left hand side in a more suitable fashion:
n + 2 n 2 + 1 = n + 2 n 2 + 2 n − 2 n − 4 + 4 + 1 = n + 2 n ∗ ( n + 2 ) − 2 ( n + 2 ) + 5 → ( n − 2 ) + n + 2 5
Rearranging the equation, we get:
n + 2 5 = ( n − 1 ) ! − ( n − 2 )
The right hand side must still be an integer, and so must be the left hand side. Now, notice that the factorial function is only defined for non-negative integers; thus, from the original equation, we must have as a first condition: n + 2 ≥ 0 → n ≥ − 2 .
Our second condition lies within the fact that n + 2 must be a divisor of 5 - which we got from rearranging the terms - which means that n + 2 has to be an element of the set ± 1 , ± 5 . From this, we derive that n belongs to the set − 7 , − 3 , − 1 , 3 .
Given both constraints, we have that n is either − 1 or 3 . Let's test both possibilities.
For n = − 1 , we have: ( − 1 ) + ( − 1 ) 2 + ( − 1 ) 3 + ( − 1 ) 4 = ( ( − 1 ) + 2 ) ! → − 1 + 1 − 1 + 1 = ( 1 ) ! → 0 = 1 , which is a false claim and therefore n = − 1 is not a valid solution.
For n = 3 , we have: 3 + 3 2 + 3 3 + 3 4 = ( 3 + 2 ) ! → 3 + 9 + 2 7 + 8 1 = 5 ! → 1 2 0 = 1 2 0 which is true, and therefore not only n = 3 is a solution, but also a unique one.
The value of n is 3
3+9+27+81=(5)!
120=120
This solution has been marked wrong. You have only shown that it works for n = 3 but you didn't show that it is the only solution.
I think that the question is to solve but not to prove .
You assume that it is an odd integer and a prime because prime integers are odd numbers (as in different from the rest) so you take the first "odd" integer which ends up being 3 since 1 is not prime. It isn't brute force, it's merely being uniquely awesome.
This solution has been marked wrong. Your assumption and reasoning made no sense. You have only shown that n must be odd. However you did not show why n = 3 is the unique solution.
This solution has been marked wrong. You have only shown that it works for n = 3 but you didn't show that it is the only solution.
n + n^2 + n^3 + n^4 = (n + 2)!
n(1 + n + n^2 + n^3) = (n + 2)!
Factorise LHS and divide through by n;
1 + n + (n^2)(1 + n) = (n + 2)!/n
Further factorise LHS;
1 + n + (n^2)(1 + n) = (n^2 + 1)(n + 1)
For RHS; (n + 2)! = (n + 2)(n +1)(n)(n - 1)!
So; (n + 2)! / n = (n + 2)(n + 1)(n - 1)!
Then LHS = RHS is;
(n^2 + 1)(n + 1) = (n + 2)(n + 1)(n - 1)!
Cancel n + 1 off both sides gives;
(n^2 + 1) = (n + 2)(n - 1)!
Note; n^2 + 1 = n^2 - 4 +5
And; n^2 - 4 = (n + 2)(n - 2)
So (n^2 + 1) = (n + 2)(n - 1)! becomes;
(n + 2)(n - 2) + 5 = (n + 2)(n - 1)!
[(n + 2)(n - 2) + 5] / (n + 2) = (n - 1)!
n - 2 + [5 / (n + 2)] = (n - 1)!
Now; 5 / (n + 2) must be an integer
Let 5 / (n + 2) = k, k an integer
n = (5 / k) - 2
If n & k are integers, k must be; -5, 1, or 5 only.
Then; n = -3, 3, or - 1
Consider LHS; (n - 1)! ... Negative numbers give indefinite factorials; therefore n = -3 or -1 cannot be correct.
n = 3 is the correct solution.
Great job! Small mistake: it should be "If n & k are integers, k must be; -5, -1, 1 or 5 only."
One can prove that for n>=4 there is no solution as RHS>LHS (not a hard problem) There is also no solution for n <=-3 as negative factorials are not defined. Testing -2,-1,0,1,2,3 gives 3 as the solution .
This solution is incomplete. It is not obvious that "One can prove that for n>=4 there is no solution as RHS>LHS (not a hard problem)".
I just typed 3 because it seemed like the coolest answer.
This solution has been marked wrong. What makes 3 the coolest answer?
Simply start bashing and you'll finish at 3
This solution is incomplete. You did not show any relevant working to obtain your answer. Nor did you explain why there is only one solution.
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The given equation can be put in the form :
n (n + 1) (n^2 + 1) =(n - 1)! (n + 2)(n + 1)(n)
(n - 1)! = (n^2 + 1) / (n + 2) = (n - 2) + 5 / (n + 2)
Then
5 / (n + 2) must be an integer
So
n + 2 = 1 ............... i e n = -1 (refused)
Or
n + 2 = 5 .............. i e n = 3