Unmarked numbers!

The integers from 1 to 1000 are written in order around a circle. Starting at 1, every fifteenth number around the circle is marked (that is 1,16,31,...,etc.). This process is continued until no additional numbers are marked. How many numbers are left unmarked?


The answer is 800.

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8 solutions

Dan Jodan
Dec 27, 2013

1, 16 , 31, .... , 991 = 67 marked
991 + 15 = 1006 - 1000 = 6
6 , 21, 36, ,,, , 996 = 67 marked
996 + 15 = 1011 -1000 = 11
11 , 26, 41 , ... 986 = 66 marked
986 + 15 = 1001 - 1000 = 1
total marked = 67 + 67 + 66 = 200
unmarked = 1000 - 200 = 800


Or we could just find the smallest multiple of 1000 1000 that is also a multiple of 15 15 ---- to find the number of rounds the marking goes before an integer is repeated (since the difference ( = 15 ) (=15) is common, if one integer is repeated, it is clear that the entire cycle will be repeated as well). In this case, it is 3000 3000 , so the number of integers marked is 3000 15 = 200 \frac{3000}{15} = 200 . As such, the number of unmarked integers is 1000 200 = 800 1000 - 200 = \boxed{800} .

Happy Melodies - 7 years, 5 months ago

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thats exactly how i did it

Shubham Dash - 7 years, 5 months ago

Yeah right...I made a generalisation of this idea after solving it,..

Eddie The Head - 7 years, 4 months ago

This is not a good method, since you're lucky you got the repetition in 3rd circle. What if repetition started from 20th circle? Think of the fact when repetition occurs. [Hint: Consider the sequence 1,2,...,1000^{1000} & x=x' (mod 1000)]

A Brilliant Member - 7 years, 5 months ago

The best way is to consider is the HCF or GCD of 1000 = 2 2 5 2 1000=2^2*5^2 and 15 = 3 5 15=3*5 This is 5 5 So every 5 t h 5th number will be eventually be marked. So you considering all the numbers betwee 1 1 and 1000 1000 which are of the form 5 k + 1 5k+1 so that's 200 200 numbers etc.

You can try for a circle of 10 10 and doing every 6 6 you get every 2 n d 2nd will be marked Then you can try for every 7 7 or every 9 = 3 3 9=3*3 and all will be marked since both are coprime to 10 10 .

Can you prove why the HCF method works?

Nahom Yemane - 7 years, 5 months ago

applied the same

Anirudha Nayak - 7 years, 5 months ago

Why should the next number be 6?Note that 1 1 has already been marked.Therefore,counting from 992 ,we get,

992 , 993....999 , 1000 , 992,993....999,1000, 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 7 ,3,4,5,6,7

Why shouldn't we skip 1 1 as it has already been marked?The question should give an explicit example on what it means by 'every 15th number'. Of course,then the answer would be n 1 n-1 when there are n n numbers in the circle.

Rahul Saha - 7 years, 5 months ago

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What are you talking about ...

Once you skip 1 you get the next number which is again marked in the first sequence i.e. 16 and so on and this keeps on happening you never get any new number...

Or maybe i understood you wrong ??

Santanu Banerjee - 7 years, 5 months ago

As you have mentioned, the question states that

every fifteenth number is marked

So, it doesn't matter whether the number is already marked or not. (@ your example above, 1 1 should not be skipped since the question did not explicitly state that we have to do so).

Happy Melodies - 7 years, 5 months ago

This is what I thought when I saw the problem too, but then that would make the problem too easy because it would just keep recurring until there weren't any numbers left.

Trevor B. - 7 years, 5 months ago

we can do it by another way too.. Let k be natural numbers<=66 In the 1st step all the 15k numbers are missing and all the 15k+1 numbers are being added.. So no. of numbers marked=66+1=67 2nd case, all the 15k+6 numbers are being added So no.of numbers added=66+1=67 3rd case, all the 15k+11=15k-4 numbers are being added So no. of numbers added=66 Total numbers added=67+67+66=200 So no. of numbers remaining=10000-200=800 which is the answer...

Anunoy Chakraborty - 6 years, 7 months ago
Jason Sebastian
Dec 31, 2013

Let me separate the marked numbers into three phases.

Phase 1 1 : 1 , 16 , 31 , . . . , 991 1, 16, 31, ..., 991

After the number 991 991 , the next number should be 1006 1006 . But there is no number 1006 1006 , so it is 6 6 .

Phase 2 2 : 6 , 21 , 36 , . . . , 996 6, 21, 36, ..., 996

Phase 3 3 : 11 , 26 , 41 , . . . , 986 11, 26, 41, ..., 986

Why is it 986 986 ? Because if I wrote it 1001 1001 , it the same as 1 1 (the first number).

Ok, what do we have here? 67 67 numbers on Phase 1 1 , 67 67 numbers on Phase 2 2 , and 66 66 numbers on Phase 3 3 . In total, there are 800 \boxed{800} unmarked numbers. (Rarely see such nice number.)

Andres Saez
Dec 28, 2013

After considering the loop around the circle, we count integers congruent to 1,6, or 11 modulo 15. This is because 1000 10 m o d 15 1000 \equiv 10 \mod{15} , and so adding multiples of 15 increases the residue of the next "circuit" by 5. Note that after 11 would follow the residue class k 16 m o d 15 1 m o d 15 k \equiv 16 \mod{15} \equiv 1 \mod{15} and so these are the only three cases to check.

There are 67 integers congruent to 1 or 6 modulo 15 and 66 congruent to 11 modulo 15 which are less than 1000. Thus, there are 67 + 67 + 66 = 200 67+67+66=200 integers marked, and so there are 1000 200 = 800 1000-200 = \boxed{800} unmarked integers.

problem copied from MTG's Mathematics today.....

Athul Nambolan - 7 years, 5 months ago

1+15x-1000y ≡ 1+5x (mod 10) for some non-negative integers of x and y. Thus, we have to minus the total number of numbers with units digits '1' and '6' from 1000 and we obtain the answer, 800.

Michael Wood - 7 years, 5 months ago
Jeremi Litarowicz
Mar 21, 2014

We have that after adding 15 n times, we would have gone around the circle i times. Thus we get that: 15 n = 1000 i 3 n = 200 i 15n=1000i \Rightarrow 3n=200i Thus the smallest quantity for n will be: n = L C M ( 3 , 200 ) 3 = 600 3 = 200 n = \frac{LCM(3, 200)}{3} = \frac{600}{3} = 200 Thus the total amount of unnumbered slots will be 1000 200 = 800 1000-200=\boxed{800}

If 1000 is a cycle 3 whole cycles is divisible by 15. In 3 cycles: there are 3000 numbers, out of which 200 will be marked, and 800 not.

Not trying to be rude, but how does this question have such a high rating ?

Lego Haryanto
Jan 4, 2014

One can observe that we can convert the circle effect by expanding the 1000 slots to the least common multiple of 1000 and 15, which is 3000. The number of distinct slots that are marked is simply 3000 / 15 = 200.

This leaves 1000 - 200 slots = 800 unmarked.

The generalization of the problem is: given N slots arranged in a circle, we'll mark every K -th slot until there are no additional slots marked. The number of remaining unmarked slots = N - (LCM(N, K) / K)

Jan J.
Dec 29, 2013

Note that 1 + 15 67 = 1006 1 + 15 \cdot 67 = 1006 1 + 15 67 2 = 2011 1 + 15 \cdot 67 \cdot 2 = 2011 1 + 15 200 = 3001 1 + 15 \cdot 200 = 3001 Therefore only numbers congruent to one of 1 , 6 , 11 ( m o d 15 ) 1,6,11 \pmod{15} get marked. Rest are unmarked, that leaves 12 12 residues for each multiple of 15 15 , note that 990 = 15 66 990 = 15 \cdot 66 , hence there are 12 66 + 8 = 800 12 \cdot 66 + 8 = \boxed{800} unmarked numbers.

Sol1 (Think without much calculating): When we reached number 1000 (actually 991), just extend it to 2000 and 3000. It will start all over again when it reached 3000. ( 3001 1 ( m o d 1000 ) 3001 \equiv 1 ( mod 1000) ). So there will be a loop that other numbers are not marked. The marked numbers will be 1, 6, 11, 16, ...., 991 -> 200 numbers.

Therefore: Numbers not marked = 1000 200 = 800 = 1000 - 200 = \boxed{800} .

Sol2 : Numbers from 1 to 1000 that are in the form of 15 n + 1 15n + 1 for all n I I = 1000 15 = 67. n\in I - I^{-} = \lceil\frac{1000}{15}\rceil\ = 67.

Find the other 2 cases that are in the form of 15 n + 6 15n+6 and 15 n + 11 15n+11 we get 67 67 and 66 66 .

Therefore: Numbers not marked = 1000 ( 67 + 67 + 66 ) = 800 =1000 - (67+67+66) = \boxed{800} .

Note: We use ceiling because we also include n = 0 n = 0 . I'm too lazy to say floor + 1. This is the formula. x + 1 = x \lfloor x \rfloor + 1 = \lceil x \rceil for all x x in real numbers.

Sol3 : Use the same technique as solution 1, but just solving equation.

We extend it to 3000 and we know that there'll be a loop.

The numbers that are marked is 1,16,31,46,...,2971,2986, 1,16,....

And we know that...

15 n + 1 2986 15n+1 \leq 2986 (for n = 0,1,...)

Solve for n n we get n = 199. n = 199. And we know that there'll be 200 numbers are marked (including n = 0).

Therefore: Numbers not marked = 1000 200 = 800 = 1000 - 200 = \boxed{800} .

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