The integers from 1 to 1000 are written in order around a circle. Starting at 1, every fifteenth number around the circle is marked (that is 1,16,31,...,etc.). This process is continued until no additional numbers are marked. How many numbers are left unmarked?
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Or we could just find the smallest multiple of 1 0 0 0 that is also a multiple of 1 5 ---- to find the number of rounds the marking goes before an integer is repeated (since the difference ( = 1 5 ) is common, if one integer is repeated, it is clear that the entire cycle will be repeated as well). In this case, it is 3 0 0 0 , so the number of integers marked is 1 5 3 0 0 0 = 2 0 0 . As such, the number of unmarked integers is 1 0 0 0 − 2 0 0 = 8 0 0 .
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thats exactly how i did it
Yeah right...I made a generalisation of this idea after solving it,..
This is not a good method, since you're lucky you got the repetition in 3rd circle. What if repetition started from 20th circle? Think of the fact when repetition occurs. [Hint: Consider the sequence 1,2,...,1000^{1000} & x=x' (mod 1000)]
The best way is to consider is the HCF or GCD of 1 0 0 0 = 2 2 ∗ 5 2 and 1 5 = 3 ∗ 5 This is 5 So every 5 t h number will be eventually be marked. So you considering all the numbers betwee 1 and 1 0 0 0 which are of the form 5 k + 1 so that's 2 0 0 numbers etc.
You can try for a circle of 1 0 and doing every 6 you get every 2 n d will be marked Then you can try for every 7 or every 9 = 3 ∗ 3 and all will be marked since both are coprime to 1 0 .
Can you prove why the HCF method works?
applied the same
Why should the next number be 6?Note that 1 has already been marked.Therefore,counting from 992 ,we get,
9 9 2 , 9 9 3 . . . . 9 9 9 , 1 0 0 0 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 7
Why shouldn't we skip 1 as it has already been marked?The question should give an explicit example on what it means by 'every 15th number'. Of course,then the answer would be n − 1 when there are n numbers in the circle.
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What are you talking about ...
Once you skip 1 you get the next number which is again marked in the first sequence i.e. 16 and so on and this keeps on happening you never get any new number...
Or maybe i understood you wrong ??
As you have mentioned, the question states that
every fifteenth number is marked
So, it doesn't matter whether the number is already marked or not. (@ your example above, 1 should not be skipped since the question did not explicitly state that we have to do so).
This is what I thought when I saw the problem too, but then that would make the problem too easy because it would just keep recurring until there weren't any numbers left.
we can do it by another way too.. Let k be natural numbers<=66 In the 1st step all the 15k numbers are missing and all the 15k+1 numbers are being added.. So no. of numbers marked=66+1=67 2nd case, all the 15k+6 numbers are being added So no.of numbers added=66+1=67 3rd case, all the 15k+11=15k-4 numbers are being added So no. of numbers added=66 Total numbers added=67+67+66=200 So no. of numbers remaining=10000-200=800 which is the answer...
Let me separate the marked numbers into three phases.
Phase 1 : 1 , 1 6 , 3 1 , . . . , 9 9 1
After the number 9 9 1 , the next number should be 1 0 0 6 . But there is no number 1 0 0 6 , so it is 6 .
Phase 2 : 6 , 2 1 , 3 6 , . . . , 9 9 6
Phase 3 : 1 1 , 2 6 , 4 1 , . . . , 9 8 6
Why is it 9 8 6 ? Because if I wrote it 1 0 0 1 , it the same as 1 (the first number).
Ok, what do we have here? 6 7 numbers on Phase 1 , 6 7 numbers on Phase 2 , and 6 6 numbers on Phase 3 . In total, there are 8 0 0 unmarked numbers. (Rarely see such nice number.)
After considering the loop around the circle, we count integers congruent to 1,6, or 11 modulo 15. This is because 1 0 0 0 ≡ 1 0 m o d 1 5 , and so adding multiples of 15 increases the residue of the next "circuit" by 5. Note that after 11 would follow the residue class k ≡ 1 6 m o d 1 5 ≡ 1 m o d 1 5 and so these are the only three cases to check.
There are 67 integers congruent to 1 or 6 modulo 15 and 66 congruent to 11 modulo 15 which are less than 1000. Thus, there are 6 7 + 6 7 + 6 6 = 2 0 0 integers marked, and so there are 1 0 0 0 − 2 0 0 = 8 0 0 unmarked integers.
problem copied from MTG's Mathematics today.....
1+15x-1000y ≡ 1+5x (mod 10) for some non-negative integers of x and y. Thus, we have to minus the total number of numbers with units digits '1' and '6' from 1000 and we obtain the answer, 800.
We have that after adding 15 n times, we would have gone around the circle i times. Thus we get that: 1 5 n = 1 0 0 0 i ⇒ 3 n = 2 0 0 i Thus the smallest quantity for n will be: n = 3 L C M ( 3 , 2 0 0 ) = 3 6 0 0 = 2 0 0 Thus the total amount of unnumbered slots will be 1 0 0 0 − 2 0 0 = 8 0 0
If 1000 is a cycle 3 whole cycles is divisible by 15. In 3 cycles: there are 3000 numbers, out of which 200 will be marked, and 800 not.
Not trying to be rude, but how does this question have such a high rating ?
One can observe that we can convert the circle effect by expanding the 1000 slots to the least common multiple of 1000 and 15, which is 3000. The number of distinct slots that are marked is simply 3000 / 15 = 200.
This leaves 1000 - 200 slots = 800 unmarked.
The generalization of the problem is: given N slots arranged in a circle, we'll mark every K -th slot until there are no additional slots marked. The number of remaining unmarked slots = N - (LCM(N, K) / K)
Note that 1 + 1 5 ⋅ 6 7 = 1 0 0 6 1 + 1 5 ⋅ 6 7 ⋅ 2 = 2 0 1 1 1 + 1 5 ⋅ 2 0 0 = 3 0 0 1 Therefore only numbers congruent to one of 1 , 6 , 1 1 ( m o d 1 5 ) get marked. Rest are unmarked, that leaves 1 2 residues for each multiple of 1 5 , note that 9 9 0 = 1 5 ⋅ 6 6 , hence there are 1 2 ⋅ 6 6 + 8 = 8 0 0 unmarked numbers.
Sol1 (Think without much calculating): When we reached number 1000 (actually 991), just extend it to 2000 and 3000. It will start all over again when it reached 3000. ( 3 0 0 1 ≡ 1 ( m o d 1 0 0 0 ) ). So there will be a loop that other numbers are not marked. The marked numbers will be 1, 6, 11, 16, ...., 991 -> 200 numbers.
Therefore: Numbers not marked = 1 0 0 0 − 2 0 0 = 8 0 0 .
Sol2 : Numbers from 1 to 1000 that are in the form of 1 5 n + 1 for all n ∈ I − I − = ⌈ 1 5 1 0 0 0 ⌉ = 6 7 .
Find the other 2 cases that are in the form of 1 5 n + 6 and 1 5 n + 1 1 we get 6 7 and 6 6 .
Therefore: Numbers not marked = 1 0 0 0 − ( 6 7 + 6 7 + 6 6 ) = 8 0 0 .
Note: We use ceiling because we also include n = 0 . I'm too lazy to say floor + 1. This is the formula. ⌊ x ⌋ + 1 = ⌈ x ⌉ for all x in real numbers.
Sol3 : Use the same technique as solution 1, but just solving equation.
We extend it to 3000 and we know that there'll be a loop.
The numbers that are marked is 1,16,31,46,...,2971,2986, 1,16,....
And we know that...
1 5 n + 1 ≤ 2 9 8 6 (for n = 0,1,...)
Solve for n we get n = 1 9 9 . And we know that there'll be 200 numbers are marked (including n = 0).
Therefore: Numbers not marked = 1 0 0 0 − 2 0 0 = 8 0 0 .
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1, 16 , 31, .... , 991 = 67 marked
991 + 15 = 1006 - 1000 = 6
6 , 21, 36, ,,, , 996 = 67 marked
996 + 15 = 1011 -1000 = 11
11 , 26, 41 , ... 986 = 66 marked
986 + 15 = 1001 - 1000 = 1
total marked = 67 + 67 + 66 = 200
unmarked = 1000 - 200 = 800