Consider the following strange definition:
We say a sequence verconges to if there exist an such that for all ,
Which of the following conclusions is wrong ?
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Note that the definition of verconvergent sequences is equivalent to the following:
( x n ) is verconvergent ⟺ ( x n ) is bounded.
One way to prove this is proving that bounded sequences are verconvergent and unbounded sequences are not. I leave the details to the reader.
Consider x n = ( − 1 ) n . Note that this sequence is bounded ( ∣ x n ∣ ≤ 1 ) and hence is verconvergent. But ( x n ) doesn't converge.
Hence, verconvergent sequences are not convergent in general.