Evaluate the following limit :
( x , y ) → ( 0 , 0 ) lim ( p x + q y ) sin ( y x )
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Ahaha, for some reason, I missed noticing this in the rush of the exam, ended up establishing the limit by an epsilon-delta proof (from definition).
Simple and elegant solution. +1
Let ( r , θ ) be the polar coordinates of the point ( x , y ) . Then x = r cos ( θ ) and y = r sin ( θ ) , and since r = x 2 + y 2 it is clear that r → 0 as ( x , y ) → ( 0 , 0 ) . The limit then becomes
lim r → 0 r ( p cos ( θ ) + q sin ( θ ) ) sin ( cot ( θ ) ) = r A ( θ ) ,
where A ( θ ) = ( p cos ( θ ) + q sin ( θ ) ) sin ( cot ( θ ) ) .
Now since both the sine and cosine functions have a range of [ − 1 , 1 ] , we have that
− ( p + q ) ≤ A ≤ ( p + q ) ⟹ − r ( p + q ) ≤ r A ≤ r ( p + q ) , as r ≥ 0 .
Then as p and q are both constants, by the Squeeze theorem we have that lim r → 0 r A = 0 .
Let the infinitesimal small value x attains be h 1 & that y attains be h 2 . Clearly, s i n ( h 1 / h 2 ) is a finite value lying between -1 & 1 .
Once that's established, we can clearly conclude 0*( a finite value) = 0. Note that the first part of the limit evaluates to an infinitesimal small value tending to zero.
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
− ∣ p x + q y ∣ ≤ ( p x + q y ) sin ( y x ) ≤ ∣ p x + q y ∣ so the limit is 0 by the squeeze theorem .