Weird Summation

Calculus Level 5

ω = 0 1 3 ω + 2 1 3 ω + 4 + ω 2 ω ( ω + 2 ) ! \sum_{ω=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{3ω+2}-\frac{1}{3ω+4}+\frac{ω2^{ω}}{(ω+2)!}


The answer is 1.3954.

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1 solution

Aditya Malusare
Dec 23, 2015

For the first two terms of the given summation, the common difference is 3 3 . This encourages us to examine the sequence x 3 + x 6 + x 9 + = x 3 1 x 3 x^3 + x^6 + x^9 + \cdots = \dfrac{x^3}{1 - x^3} which converges for x ( 0 , 1 ) x \in (0, 1) .

We get the first pattern on setting the initial term that will be integrated as 1 2 \frac{1}{2} , and the second when we set it to be 1 4 \frac{1}{4} . Observing that integration is required is crucial here, for the denominators are in AP.

Thus, the first two terms are 1 2 + 1 5 + 1 8 + 1 11 + = j = 0 1 3 j + 2 = 0 1 x 1 x 3 d x \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{11} + \cdots = \sum_{j=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{3j+2} = \int_{0}^{1} \dfrac{x}{1 - x^3} \text{d}x 1 4 1 7 1 10 1 13 = j = 0 1 3 j + 4 = 0 1 x 3 1 x 3 d x -\frac{1}{4} -\frac{1}{7} -\frac{1}{10} -\frac{1}{13} - \cdots = \sum_{j=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{-1}{3j+4} = \int_{0}^{1} \dfrac{-x^3}{1 - x^3} \text{d}x

For the third term, the factorial in the denominator indicates the presence of the series expansion of e x e^x in the solution. Indeed, upon expanding and further manipulation, we get 0 j x j ( j + 2 ) ! = x d d x ( e x 1 x x 2 ) \sum_{0}^{\infty} \frac{jx^j}{(j+2)!} = x\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{e^x - 1- x}{x^2}\right)

Substituting x = 2 x = 2 in the expression above we get 0 j 2 j ( j + 2 ) ! = 1 \displaystyle\sum_{0}^{\infty} \dfrac{j2^j}{(j+2)!} = 1

Also, j = 0 1 3 j + 2 j = 0 1 3 j + 4 = 0 1 x x 3 1 x 3 d x = 1 0 1 1 1 + x + x 2 d x = 1 π 3 3 \sum_{j=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{3j+2} - \sum_{j=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{3j+4} = \int_{0}^{1} \dfrac{x-x^3}{1 - x^3} \text{d}x = 1 - \int_{0}^{1} \dfrac{1}{1+x+x^2} \text{d}x = 1 - \frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{3}}

Hence, the answer is the sum of the two parts and is equal to 2 π 3 3 \boxed{2-\dfrac{\pi}{3\sqrt{3}}}

Nice Solution!

The last series can be also transformed to a telescoping series:

n = 0 n 2 n ( n + 2 ) ! = n = 0 ( n + 2 2 ) 2 n ( n + 2 ) ! = n = 0 2 n ( n + 1 ) ! n = 0 2 n + 1 ( n + 2 ) ! \displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{n2^n}{(n+2)!} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(n+2-2)2^n}{(n+2)!} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{2^n}{(n+1)!} - \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{2^{n+1}}{(n+2)!}

Telescoping to 1

Hasan Kassim - 5 years, 5 months ago

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That's a good observation. It certainly is much easier than differentiating the series expansion :)

Aditya Malusare - 5 years, 5 months ago

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:-( i was able to get the last series only.but after viewing the solution i used wolfram which showed 1.14 but the ans here is 1.39.why?

Ashutosh Sharma - 3 years, 4 months ago

You need to be more careful about this derivation! You write j = 0 1 3 j + 2 = 0 1 x 1 x 3 d x j = 0 1 3 j + 4 = 0 1 x 3 1 x 3 d x \sum_{j=0}^\infty \frac{1}{3j+2} \; = \; \int_0^1 \frac{x}{1-x^3}\,dx \qquad \qquad \sum_{j=0}^\infty \frac{1}{3j+4} \; = \;\int_0^1 \frac{x^3}{1-x^3}\,dx and subtract the two to obtain your first result.

However, both of these "formulae" state that = \infty = \infty , since both series and both integrals diverge; subtracting the two "formulae", as you do, is meaningless (even though the end result is the correct answer!).

Do your initial calculations with finite sums, and only take the limit later. Thus j = 0 N 1 1 3 j + 2 = 0 1 j = 0 N 1 x 3 j + 1 d x = 0 1 x ( 1 x 3 N ) 1 x 3 d x j = 0 N 1 1 3 j + 4 = 0 1 j = 0 N 1 x 3 j + 3 d x = 0 1 x 3 ( 1 x 3 N ) 1 x 3 d x \begin{array}{rcl} \displaystyle\sum_{j=0}^{N-1} \frac{1}{3j+2} & = &\displaystyle \int_0^1 \sum_{j=0}^{N-1} x^{3j+1}\,dx \; = \; \int_0^1 \frac{x(1 - x^{3N})}{1-x^3}\,dx \\ \displaystyle\sum_{j=0}^{N-1} \frac{1}{3j+4} & = &\displaystyle \int_0^1 \sum_{j=0}^{N-1} x^{3j+3}\,dx \; = \; \int_0^1 \frac{x^3(1-x^{3N})}{1-x^3}\,dx \end{array} These integrals are OK, since the factor of 1 x 3 N 1 - x^{3N} in the numerator cancels out the singularity at x = 1 x=1 in the denominator in each case. We can now subtract these equations to deduce that j = 0 N 1 ( 1 3 j + 2 1 3 j + 4 ) = 0 1 ( x x 3 ) ( 1 x 3 N ) 1 x 3 d x = 0 1 x ( 1 + x ) ( 1 x 3 N ) 1 + x + x 2 d x \sum_{j=0}^{N-1}\left(\frac{1}{3j+2} - \frac{1}{3j+4}\right) \; = \; \int_0^1 \frac{(x - x^3)(1 - x^{3N})}{1 - x^3}\,dx \; = \; \int_0^1 \frac{x(1+x)(1 - x^{3N})}{1 + x + x^2}\,dx This last integral contains no singularity at x = 1 x=1 , and we can now let N N \to \infty to deduce that j = 0 N 1 ( 1 3 j + 2 1 3 j + 4 ) = 0 1 x ( 1 + x ) 1 + x + x 2 d x = 1 π 3 3 , \sum_{j=0}^{N-1}\left(\frac{1}{3j+2} - \frac{1}{3j+4}\right) \; = \; \int_0^1 \frac{x(1+x)}{1 + x + x^2}\,dx \; = \; 1 - \frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{3}} \;, and the rest of the result follows.

Mark Hennings - 5 years, 5 months ago

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Thank you for pointing that out. I'll edit my solution to fix this

Aditya Malusare - 5 years, 5 months ago

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