Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval ( − 1 , 1 ) such that e − x f ( x ) = 2 + ∫ 0 x t 4 + 1 d t for all x ∈ ( − 1 , 1 ) and let f − 1 be the inverse function of f . Then ( f − 1 ) ′ ( 2 ) 1 is
Inspiration: IIT JEE 2010
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this is the way i did the problem....this should. not be a level 5 problem
f ( 0 ) = 2 is immediate from the problem. Therefore f − 1 ( 2 ) = 0 follows. Now, differentiating the original equation, e − x f ′ ( x ) − e − x f ( x ) = x 4 + 1 . Put f − 1 ( x ) instead of x . Resulting equation would be e − f − 1 ( x ) f ′ ( f − 1 ( x ) ) − e − f − 1 ( x ) f ( f − 1 ( x ) ) = ( f − 1 ( x ) ) 4 + 1 ⟶ 1 . Since f − 1 is the inverse of f , f ( f − 1 ( x ) ) = x . Differentiating, f ′ ( f − 1 ( x ) ) ∗ ( ( f − 1 ) ′ ( x ) ) = 1 . Therefore, f ′ ( f − 1 ( x ) ) = ( f − 1 ) ′ ( x ) 1 . Simplifying the equation 1, ( f − 1 ) ′ ( x ) e − f − 1 ( x ) − e − f − 1 ( x ) x = ( f − 1 ( x ) ) 4 + 1 . Plugging in 2, we will get ( f − 1 ) ′ ( x ) 1 = 3
I have a little doubt,√((f^-1x)^4+1) results to be √1,if we take√1=1 then it's 3,but if we take it as -1 then the answer be 1,why it can't be 1??
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That is because root(x^2) is defined to be |x|. Hence 3 is correct.
In one word we need to only f'(0)....as (f^-1(f(x)))' = 1/f'(x). So diffentiating with leibnitz rule and using that f(0)=2. We see that (e^-x)f'(x) - (e^-x)f(x) = (1+x^4)^1/2. Putting x=0 we have f'(0) - 2 = 1. So f'(0) = 3
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The standard formula for the derivative of an inverse function, which follows easily from the Chain Rule, is: if f ( x ) = y , then ( f − 1 ) ′ ( y ) f ′ ( x ) = 1 . Note that f ( 0 ) = 2 . So ( f − 1 ) ′ ( 2 ) 1 = f ′ ( 0 ) .
Now f ( x ) = 2 e x + e x F ( x ) , where F ( x ) = ∫ 0 x t 4 + 1 d t . Differentiating, we get f ′ ( x ) f ′ ( 0 ) = 2 e x + e x F ′ ( x ) + e x F ( x ) = 2 + F ′ ( 0 ) + F ( 0 ) Now F ( 0 ) = 0 , and by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus , F ′ ( 0 ) = 0 4 + 1 = 1 . So the answer is 2 + 1 + 0 = 3 .