What is the value of ln ( 1 ) \ln(-1) ?

Algebra Level 2

We know ln ( 1 ) = 0 \ln(1)=0 and ln ( 1 ) \ln(-1) is meaningless. But is ln ( 1 ) \ln(-1) really meaningless? Which of the following options is a possible value of ln ( 1 ) \ln(-1) ?

1 -1 π \pi π i \pi i i i

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

4 solutions

Chew-Seong Cheong
Jan 25, 2021

In Mathematics, if you find the answer in the real world, find it in the complex world.

ln ( 1 ) = ln ( i 2 ) = 2 ln i where i = 1 denotes the imaginary unit. = 2 ln ( e π 2 i ) By Euler’s formula: e θ i = cos θ + i sin θ = 2 × π 2 i = π i \begin{aligned} \ln (-1) & = \ln (i^2) = 2 \ln i & \small \blue{\text{where }i = \sqrt{-1} \text{ denotes the imaginary unit.}} \\ & = 2 \ln \left(e^{\frac \pi 2 i}\right) & \small \blue{\text{By Euler's formula: }e^{\theta i}= \cos \theta + i\sin \theta} \\ & = 2 \times \frac \pi 2 i = \boxed {\pi i} \end{aligned}


References:

This is a another nice solution. :) I am going to post an interesting problem - how to calculate i i i^i ?

Raymond Fang - 4 months, 2 weeks ago

i i i^i is a real number so I think this problem will very very interesting! :)

Raymond Fang - 4 months, 2 weeks ago

666,I haven't learned it yet

zyq china - 4 months, 2 weeks ago
K T
Jan 25, 2021

If ln ( 1 ) = y 1 = e y \ln(-1)=y \Rightarrow -1=e^y . Since by Euler's formula e i t = cos ( t ) + i sin ( t ) e^{it}=\cos(t)+i\sin(t) we find t = ( π + 2 k π ) t=(π + 2kπ) , for any k Z k \in \Z . So there is more than one solution, because e y e^y is periodic (mod 2 π i 2πi ). The case k = 0 k=0 is called the principal solution and gives y = π i y=πi .

Some problems looks very hard but it's very easy, like this :)

Raymond Fang - 4 months, 2 weeks ago
Raymond Fang
Jan 25, 2021

We know e i x = cos x + i sin x e^{ix}=\cos x + i \sin x and we also know when x = π x = \pi then e i π = 1 e i π = e ln ( 1 ) ln ( 1 ) = π i e^{i\pi}=-1 \newline e^{i\pi}=e^{\ln(-1)} \newline \boxed{\ln(-1) = \pi i}

Jason Gomez
Jan 26, 2021

l n ( 1 ) = ( 2 n + 1 ) π i ln(-1) = (2n + 1) πi for any integer n

For this question only n=0 is a given answer but all other solutions are also good enough unless we want to keep ln() as an one-one function and not a one-many relation

l n ( x + i y ) ln(x+iy) = l n ( x 2 + y 2 ) 2 \frac{ln(x^2+y^2)}{2} + i a r g ( x + i y ) + i*arg(x+iy) is one possible definition of the natural logarithm which is one-one in the complex plane

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...