We know ln ( 1 ) = 0 and ln ( − 1 ) is meaningless. But is ln ( − 1 ) really meaningless? Which of the following options is a possible value of ln ( − 1 ) ?
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This is a another nice solution. :) I am going to post an interesting problem - how to calculate i i ?
i i is a real number so I think this problem will very very interesting! :)
666,I haven't learned it yet
If ln ( − 1 ) = y ⇒ − 1 = e y . Since by Euler's formula e i t = cos ( t ) + i sin ( t ) we find t = ( π + 2 k π ) , for any k ∈ Z . So there is more than one solution, because e y is periodic (mod 2 π i ). The case k = 0 is called the principal solution and gives y = π i .
Some problems looks very hard but it's very easy, like this :)
We know e i x = cos x + i sin x and we also know when x = π then e i π = − 1 e i π = e ln ( − 1 ) ln ( − 1 ) = π i
l n ( − 1 ) = ( 2 n + 1 ) π i for any integer n
For this question only n=0 is a given answer but all other solutions are also good enough unless we want to keep ln() as an one-one function and not a one-many relation
l n ( x + i y ) = 2 l n ( x 2 + y 2 ) + i ∗ a r g ( x + i y ) is one possible definition of the natural logarithm which is one-one in the complex plane
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In Mathematics, if you find the answer in the real world, find it in the complex world.
ln ( − 1 ) = ln ( i 2 ) = 2 ln i = 2 ln ( e 2 π i ) = 2 × 2 π i = π i where i = − 1 denotes the imaginary unit. By Euler’s formula: e θ i = cos θ + i sin θ
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