∫ 0 π x sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x
If the integral above equals to b a π 2 where a and b are coprime integers, then find the value of 5 a + b .
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There is another way without using beta function can you find it out, btw nice solution !+1
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Using reduction formula.
Parth there is. I did it by the conventional method of integration by parts. It took me 3.5 pages.
Btw you can try integrating sin^n(x) cos^m(x) from 0 to pi/2 using Walli's formula,so there is no need of beta function.
∫ 0 π / 2 sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) \dx = 1 0 ( 8 ) ( 6 ) ( 4 ) ( 2 ) 5 ( 3 ) ( 1 ) ( 3 ) ( 1 ) × 2 π = 5 1 2 3 π
Aah! I c what mistake i made! What a fool I am! But the conventional method brought me the answer.
In your second line why cant you just add that to the original integral I? Giving 2I = integration from 0 to pi of pi dx
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Using f ( a + b − x ) → f ( x ) the integral converts into
I = ∫ 0 π x sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x = ∫ 0 π ( π − x ) sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x = π ∫ 0 π sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x − ∫ 0 π x sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x = π ∫ 0 π sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x − I
2 I = π ∫ 0 π sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x = π ∫ 0 2 π sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x + π ∫ 2 π π sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x
Taking the substitution t = x − 2 π in the latter integral in the previous step, we get that the first and last integral in the last step are equal.
2 I = 2 π ∫ 0 2 π sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x I = π ∫ 0 2 π sin 6 ( x ) cos 4 ( x ) d x
Now, 2 1 B ( x , y ) = ∫ 0 2 π sin 2 x − 1 ( t ) cos 2 y − 1 ( t ) d t .
So, the above integral turns into
I = π × 2 1 × B ( 2 7 , 2 5 ) = 2 π × Γ ( 6 ) Γ ( 2 7 ) Γ ( 2 5 ) = 5 1 2 3 π 2