When You're High on Math

Calculus Level 5

k = 1 ( 1 + 2 cos ( 2 x 3 k ) 3 ) \prod_{k=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1+2 \cos \left(\frac{2x}{3^k}\right)}{3}\right)

Define the expression above as f ( x ) f(x) and if

0 ( f ( x ) + f 2 ( x ) + f 3 ( x ) + f 4 ( x ) ) d x = A B π \int_{0}^{\infty}(f(x)+f^2(x)+f^3(x)+f^4(x)) \ \mathrm dx=\frac{A}{B}\pi

where A A and B B are coprime positive integers. Find the value of A + B A+B .

Image Credit: Wikimedia Psychedelic Dingbats by Hendrike


The answer is 65.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

1 solution

Shashwat Shukla
Mar 16, 2015

As there are so many threes involved and as this is a trigonometric series, it seems only logical to try and work with the expressions for s i n 3 θ sin3\theta and c o s 3 θ cos3\theta .

Consider:

s i n 3 θ = 3 s i n θ 4 ( s i n θ ) 3 = s i n θ ( 3 4 ( s i n θ ) 2 ) sin3\theta = 3sin\theta -4(sin\theta)^3 = sin\theta \left ( 3-4(sin\theta)^2 \right )

= s i n θ ( 1 + 2 ( 1 2 ( s i n θ ) 2 ) ) =sin\theta \left ( 1+2\left (1-2(sin\theta)^2 \right ) \right )

= s i n θ ( 1 + 2 c o s 2 θ ) =sin\theta \left ( 1+2cos2\theta \right )

That's it! We're essentially done because you can use the same relation for the s i n θ sin\theta in the RHS:

s i n 3 θ = s i n θ ( 1 + 2 c o s 2 θ ) = s i n θ 3 ( 1 + 2 c o s 2 θ 3 ) ( 1 + 2 c o s 2 θ ) sin3\theta = sin\theta ( 1+2cos2\theta) =sin\frac{\theta}{3}(1+2cos\frac{2 \theta}{3})( 1+2cos2\theta)

Keep doing this for every sine term on the RHS and you get: s i n 3 θ = lim n s i n ( θ 3 n ) k = 0 n ( 1 + 2 cos ( 2 θ 3 k ) ) sin3\theta=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}sin\left ( \frac{\theta}{3^n}\right )\prod_{k=0}^{n}\left(1+2 \cos \left(\frac{2\theta}{3^k}\right)\right)

Divide both sides by θ \theta and note that lim n s i n ( θ 3 n ) θ = 3 n \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\frac{sin\left ( \frac{\theta}{3^n}\right )}{\theta}=3^n

Let 3 θ = x 3\theta =x

From this, we get, f ( x ) = s i n x x f(x)=\frac{sinx}{x}

The title for the problem was motivated by the integrals involved.

n = 1 4 0 ( s i n x x ) k d x \sum_{n=1}^{4} \int_{0}^{\infty}\left ( \frac{sinx}{x} \right )^kdx

If you are seeing these for the first time and sit down to do them one by one, without the use of contour integration, you really must be high on math!(or maybe meth (just kidding). It's open to debate as to which is the more potent drug.)

0 s i n x x d x = π 2 \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{sinx}{x}dx=\frac{\pi}{2}

It is a well known result and is called the Dirichlet integral . Follow the link for proofs of the same.

Using this, we can find the other three integrals as well, using integration by parts. It is rather lengthy and I won't post the method here as each of these integrals have already been posted as questions on Brilliant itself.

For example, here .

The final answer evaluates to 41 π 24 \frac{41\pi}{24}

Thus, A + B = 65 A+B=\boxed{65}

Bro , Is there any general aproach for this I ( a ) = 0 sin a x x a d x I(a)=\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ \cfrac { \sin ^{ a }{ x } }{ { x }^{ a } } dx } integral , I'am able to solve I ( 1 ) = π 2 & I ( 2 ) = π 2 I(1)=\cfrac { \pi }{ 2 } \quad \& \quad I(2)=\cfrac { \pi }{ 2 } which is also takes to much time ! and for further Integrals I Honestly say , I used wolframalpha !

I used g ( b ) = 0 e b x sin x x d x g\left( b \right) =\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ { e }^{ -bx }\cfrac { \sin { x } }{ x } dx } and using an Integral result which i had post here while ago! here

But this is too tedious ! I'am sure there is better technique ! Can You Please Help me , I'am actually didn't know about any advance skill , Like as beta ,gamma ,zeta functions! Thanks! @Shashwat Shukla

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 2 months ago

Log in to reply

The easiest way to do all of these integrals in one go is to use basic contour integration and the method of residues.

But as this would probably be classified as an advanced technique, I don't think there is a general method of finding a closed form using only elementary methods.

But all of them can be derived starting with I ( 1 ) I(1) .

For example, integrate I ( 2 ) I(2) by parts to prove that it is equal to I ( 1 ) I(1) .

For I ( 3 ) I(3) , the easier way is to write s i n 3 x sin^3x in terms of sinx and sin3x.

This discussion has other methods too.

And I ( 4 ) I(4) has been posted as a question by Sir Calvin a while ago. You can check it out here .

Hope this helps :)

Shashwat Shukla - 6 years, 2 months ago

Log in to reply

Thanks , a lot shashwat ! Also did you know good source for learning such functions , wikipedia is bit harder for me . Thanks again!

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 2 months ago

At first I thought the question was incorrect when I found that f ( x ) = s i n ( x ) / x f(x)=sin(x)/x which a known non-integrable function. But I typed it in google and found a website that gave me all the values! The first half of the question is itself not easy, do we need contour integrals too? ;)

Raghav Vaidyanathan - 6 years, 2 months ago

Log in to reply

You don't actually n e e d need contour integration for any of them. It just makes things w a y way easier.

The first integral is called the Dirichlet integral .

The link has a proof that uses Feynman's method.

@Raghav Vaidyanathan

Shashwat Shukla - 6 years, 2 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...