Consider the following statement, which (according to me), essentially corresponds to a principle attributed to Isaac Newton:
"In a potential-free universe, the least-action path between space-time coordinates and has zero kinetic energy at all times between and "
Which is it?
Please post a solution explaining your thought process.
Note: If you don't believe that there is an exact correspondence, choose the option that is the closest in meaning
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According to the classical principle of least action, if a particle goes from ( x 1 , y 1 , z 1 , t 1 ) to ( x 2 , y 2 , z 2 , t 2 ) , it will do so along a path which minimizes the action S (where E is the kinetic energy and U is the potential energy).
S = ∫ t 1 t 2 ( E − U ) d t
In a potential-free universe (which also means that there are no forces), the action reduces to:
S = ∫ t 1 t 2 E d t
In the specific case under consideration, the particle is at the same point in space at different points in time. The minimum action between the starting and ending points obviously corresponds to E = 0 (zero velocity) at all instants in time. This solution is consistent with the particle remaining in place.
So given the starting and ending points, and the absence of potentials (forces), the least action principle dictates that the particle's velocity remains zero. By extension, the absence of potentials (forces) implies that the velocity must be constant (zero). This is essentially a re-statement of Newton's 1st law of motion.
See this note for a more general treatment.