Why is x x in there?

Algebra Level 2

log x ( 2 x ) + log 2 ( x ) 3 \large \log_{x}(2x)+\log_{2}(x)\geq 3 The inequality above has a solution in the form ( a , + ) (a,+\infty) . Find the value of a a


The answer is 1.

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2 solutions

Darryl Stein
Mar 31, 2016

l o g x ( 2 x ) + l o g 2 ( x ) 3 log_{x}(2x)+log_{2}(x)\geqslant 3

l o g x ( 2 ) + l o g x ( x ) + l o g 2 ( x ) 3 log_{x}(2)+log_{x}(x)+log_{2}(x)\geqslant 3

l o g x ( 2 ) + 1 + l o g 2 ( x ) 3 log_{x}(2)+1+log_{2}(x)\geqslant 3

l o g x ( 2 ) + l o g 2 ( x ) 2 log_{x}(2)+log_{2}(x)\geqslant 2

l o g 2 l o g x + l o g x l o g 2 2 \frac{log\, 2}{log\,x}+\frac{log\, x}{log\,2}\geqslant 2

( l o g 2 ) 2 + ( l o g x ) 2 l o g x l o g 2 2 \frac{(log\, 2)^{2}+(log\,x)^{2}}{log\,x\,log\, 2}\geqslant 2

now a=log x and b=log 2

a 2 + b 2 a b 2 \frac{a^{2}+b^{2}}{ab}\geqslant 2

if a>0 then x > 1 and

a 2 + b 2 2 a b a^{2}+b^{2}\geqslant 2{ab}

if a<0 then 0<x<1 and

a 2 + b 2 2 a b a^{2}+b^{2}\leqslant 2{ab}

continuing with a>0

a 2 + b 2 2 a b 0 a^{2}+b^{2}-2{ab}\geqslant 0

( a b ) 2 0 (a-b)^{2}\geqslant 0

therefore for a>0 a can be anything (and requires x>1)

but for a<0 a cannot be real

therefore the domain of x is (1, +inf)

a = 1 makes no sense. In the first place, in the above proof, we have a^2 + b^2 - 2ab >= 0, followed by (a + b)^2 >= 0. This is obviously incorrect. It should be (a - b)^2 >= 0. This is followed by the conclusion that a > 1. However, a is defined in the proof as a = log x. This is not the same "a" shown in the statement of the problem. If a = 1 = log x, then x = base of the logarithm, either 10 or e, depending on the author's convention. However, it is easily verified that x = 2 satisfies the equality.

It is simple to rearrange the equation (with apologies for the format): logx 2 + log2 x >= 3 - logx x = 3 - 1 = 2 Using laws of logarithms, logx 2 = 1/ log2 x = y Then y + 1/y >= 2 -> y^2 + 1 >= 2y -> y^2 - 2y + 1 >= 0 or (y - 1)^2 >= 0 So, y = 1 satisfies the equality, and logx 2 = 1 -> x = 2 If we plug x = 2 back into the original equation, the equality is indeed satisfied. Any value of y other than 1 satisfies the inequality. However, if we plug a value of x < 2 into the original equation, the inequality is not satisfied. Consistent with the statement of the problem, any value of x > 2 does satisfy the inequality. Therefore, a = 2 in the expression (a, infinity).

Tom Capizzi - 4 years, 9 months ago

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Same with me. I also used the equality as the polynomial u²-2x+1>0 for any value greater than it's zero. But when I saw the graph of the inequality, the function was decreasing in [0,2] and increasing from [2,+♾️]. So the answer should be 2 not 1. But Wolfram Alpha also gives the solution, [1,infinity]. Seems like after the first point, it doesn't care about upcoming exceptions like invalid inequality, like in this case.

Laxmi Narayan Bhandari Xth B - 8 months, 3 weeks ago

the correct answer is 2 if U ask about value of a or value of X but if you need the number of root the equation that answer is 1

Said Pattinson - 3 years, 5 months ago

a+1/a >= 2 for +value of a,so in the problem x>1

Balakrishna Padhy - 11 months, 3 weeks ago
Sergio Melo
Jul 13, 2019

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