Let x , y , z be real numbers such that x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 1 . Find the maximum possible value of 1 0 x y + y z .
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Exactly same way.. I really enjoy this prob becoz my teacher taught me about spherical coordinates in Schodinger's wave model few days ago ..! thats why i am able to solve this prob by using polar cordinates...lolz...!!!
F=45 degrees, theta is about 17.55,My hometown Belgrade is 44 and 20 degrees,very close to that point.there is also 45 and 197.55 second solve,other hemisphere
What a great observation...Cheers !!!
My solution is based on Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality .
x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 1
x 2 + z 2 = 1 − y 2
By Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality,
( x 2 + z 2 ) ( 1 0 + 1 ) ≥ ( 1 0 x + z ) 2
1 1 ( 1 − y 2 ) ≥ 1 0 x + z
Now, the problem can be written as to find the maximum value of
y 1 1 ( 1 − y 2 )
1 1 ( y 2 − y 4 )
By simple derivatives, the maximum value of y 2 − y 4 for y is a real number is 4 1 .
Substitute to the expression and we will get
2 1 1 ≈ 1 . 6 5 8
derivative of y^2-y^4- shouldn't its maximum value be 1/4 ?? @Christopher Boo
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Yeah, it's a typo, thanks for the correction!
Same solution!!!
Firstly we rewrite the ugly expression as an even uglier one: 1 0 x y + y z = 1 1 4 1 x 1 1 4 1 1 0 2 1 y + 1 1 4 1 1 y 1 1 4 1 z
Now we use the fact that a b ≤ 2 a 2 + b 2 for all real a , b .
Letting a = 1 1 4 1 x , b = 1 1 4 1 1 0 2 1 y Then 1 1 4 1 x 1 1 4 1 1 0 2 1 y is less than or equal to 2 1 1 2 1 x 2 + 1 1 2 1 1 0 y 2
Similarly, 1 1 4 1 1 y 1 1 4 1 z ≤ 2 1 1 2 1 1 y 2 + 1 1 2 1 z 2
Adding both up, we get 1 0 x y + y z ≤ 2 1 1 x 2 + 1 1 y 2 + 1 1 z 2 = 2 1 1 This is approximately 1.658. Also, equality can be achieved when x = 1 1 5 , y = 2 1 , z = 2 2 1 Hence answer is 1.658.
To generalize, if we want to maximize a x y + b y z subject to x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 1 , then we want to find a constant C such that
a x y + b y z ≤ C ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) = C
We have a x y ≤ C x 2 + 2 C a 2 y 2 and b y z ≤ C z 2 + 2 C b 2 y 2 .
Hence, we need to solve for 2 C a 2 + 2 C b 2 = C , or that 2 C 2 = a 2 + b 2 or that C = 2 a 2 + b 2 .
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C = 2 a 2 + b 2 , the answer is obtained by this expression
why do we have a x y ≤ C x 2 + 2 C a 2 y 2 ? Moreover, what is the motivation behind such an out of the blue inequaity which solves the problem magically.
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In the previous equation, we want a x y + b y z ≤ C ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) . Notice that b y z cannot contribute a x 2 term, which is why we have a x y ≤ C x 2 + ? ? . Then, to complete it, we apply AM-GM, which tells us that a x y ≤ C x 2 + 2 C a 2 y 2 .
Ditto for the 2nd inequality.
Using the method of Lagrange multiplier we get, 1 0 y = 2 x L ( Let L denote the multiplier/the symbol lambda). Also, we get 1 0 x + z = 2 y L and y = 2 z L . From these equations by substituting for y we know that 1 0 z = x . By some simple substitution you can find the value of L to be 1 1 / 2 . Then use the fact that y = 2 z × 1 1 / 2 and 1 0 z = x to get x in terms of y . This will give x = 1 0 y / 1 1 . Knowing these two last equations we can substitute for y and z in the equation given in the question. Solving this new equation will give x = 1 0 / 2 2 . Using this value of x you can find the values of z and y which are 1 / 2 2 and 1 1 / 2 2 respectively. Then just substitute the values into the expression to get a maximum value of 1 . 6 5 8
Consider U = 1 1 ( 1 0 x y + y z ) = ( 1 1 y ) ( 1 0 x + z ) .
By AM-GM Inequality, U ≤ 2 1 1 y 2 + ( 1 0 x + z ) 2 .
By Cauchy-Schwartz Inequality, ( x 2 + z 2 ) ( 1 0 + 1 ) ≥ ( 1 0 x + z ) 2 .
Hence, U ≤ 2 1 1 y 2 + 1 1 ( x 2 + z 2 ) = 2 1 1 .
Now, 1 0 x y + y z = 1 1 U ≤ 2 1 1 ≈ 1 . 6 5 8 .
The minimum is attained if { 1 0 x 2 1 1 y = = z 2 1 0 x + z , which eventually means that ⎩ ⎪ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎪ ⎧ x y z = = = 1 1 5 2 1 2 2 1 .
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Given is an equation of sphere
x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 1
We write it in parametric form as
x = cos θ sin ϕ , y = cos ϕ , z = sin θ sin ϕ , where θ and ϕ are independent of each other.
After plugging these values in given expression, it can be rewritten as
sin ϕ cos ϕ ( 1 0 cos θ + sin θ ) ,
which clearly (crystal clear to a Level 5 user) has a maximum value equal to
2 1 1 0 + 1 = 2 1 1 , which is approximately equal to 1 . 6 5 8 .