The following integral is equal to I . Find ⌊ 1 0 0 0 I ⌋ . I = ∫ 0 π e cos θ cos θ sin θ d θ
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did exactly the same!
Oops, forgot to post the without θ part of this question. I'll do that now and post the set.
I changed the limits when I did the substitution, negating the need to sub back in again, but other than that, identical method
I = ∫ 0 π e c o s θ c o s θ s i n θ d θ p u t c o s θ = t t h e n − s i n θ d θ = d t w h e n θ = π t = − 1 θ = 0 t = 1 t h e n I = − ∫ 1 − 1 e t t d t = ∫ − 1 1 e t t d t = e 2
∫ 0 π e c o s θ cos θ sin θ d θ The sustitution that makes this easier is c o s θ = x = > d θ = − s i n θ d x . Therefore ∫ 0 π e c o s θ cos θ sin θ d θ = ∫ − 1 1 e x x d x ( e x x ] − 1 1 − ∫ − 1 1 e x d x = e + e 1 − e + e 1
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Use substitution first:
Let x = cos θ
∫ e cos θ cos θ sin θ d θ = − ∫ e x x d x
Now, integrate by parts:
− ∫ x e x d x = − ( x e x − e x ) = e x − x e x
Ignore the constant of integration.
∫ 0 π e cos θ cos θ sin θ d θ = e x − x e x = e cos θ − cos θ e cos θ
To put back the limits, we insert θ = π and simplify to get:
∫ 0 π e cos θ cos θ sin θ d θ = e 2
Now, do the rest yourself..... I must go for lunch