Without calculus

Imagine a rod made of a material of youngs modulus Y and length l , area of cross section A , in Space far away from all gravitational fields

It is subject to 2 forces one 40N and other 10N acting on opposite faces in opposite directions as shown,

Find the net elongation of rod

If answer is a

find 100a

NOTE

1) Any one can solve using calculus, try to do it without using calculus

2) Remembering a result or formula and solving it is not the same as a new method, in short- Try to Avoid using calculus based results for this problem

-DETAILS AND ASSUMPTIONS

1) L=1

2) A=5

3) Y=5

All in SI units


The answer is 100.

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3 solutions

Mvs Saketh
Nov 5, 2014

the net force on the system is 30N, now let us take the mass of the rod to be 'm', Then its acceleration is 30 m \frac { 30 }{ m }

Now let us switch to that frame, and since that frame is non inertial the rod experiences a pseudoforce of 30 m . m \frac { 30 }{ m } .m

now , the situation is as shown below ( in C frame )

Situation Situation

In this frame rod is in equillibrium,, also as pseudoforce acts on all particles ,we can consider it equivalent to be passing through com,

Thus considering the equillibrium of each half of rod seperately, we

see the situation to be identical to two rods each having half the length one experiencing a force of 10 N on either side thus under a tension of 10 N and other 40 N

Thus seperately finding elongation

f 1 l 2 A Y + f 2 l 2 A Y = Δ ( l 1 + l 2 ) = Δ l \frac { { f }_{ 1 }l }{ 2AY } +\frac { { f }_{ 2 }l }{ 2AY } =\Delta ({ l }_{ 1 }+{ l }_{ 2 })=\Delta l

which is 1m,

thus an s 100

NOTE

1) ignore the arrow marks on individual halves

2) The common calculus based method involves considering a thin element of rod and finding tension as a function of x, and thus calculating the small elementary elongation of each component and adding it up

3) Now you can remember the result as the situation equivalent to having T=average of scalar sum of forces

4) I think my method is simpler

Thumbs up ! I'am not able to solve it without Calculus !! Your Solution is Really great !

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 7 months ago

why this way is not true ?????? f l A Y + f l A Y = 10 25 + 40 25 = 2 2 = a > 100 a = 200 \frac { fl }{ AY } +\frac { f'l }{ AY } =\frac { 10}{ 25 } +\frac {40}{ 25 } =2\\ 2=a\quad \quad -->\quad 100a=\boxed { 200 }

safa m - 6 years, 5 months ago

loved your way...It was awesome

Mayank Singh - 6 years, 3 months ago

whats wrong in the method in which we consider net force of 30 and applying net elongation =FL/(2AY) @Mvs Saketh

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 2 months ago

@Spandan Senapati

Can you explain me this solution? I am not getting it and MVS is inactive since ages.Thanks.

Harsh Shrivastava - 4 years, 2 months ago

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I did this way Its easy to guess that Tension is a linear function of x.So when a function is linear its average is Mean of initial and final values .So Average stress= 10 + 40 / 2 A 10+40/2A = 25 / A 25/A .And next is easy.He considered the elongations from COM and simply added up(that's logical). Or refer to the next solution.In this probably some part will have elongation and some compressions and the net result is 1m

Spandan Senapati - 4 years, 2 months ago
Mayank Khetan
Dec 2, 2014

Tension decreases linearly along the rod as we move from right to left. Therefore, instead of integrating for each small element of rod, we can directly take the average i.e. we can assume uniform tension of (10+40)/2=25 N along the rod. Then using Hooke's law, we directly get l=1m.

Ans: 100

Mvs Saketh: Please can you explain why there is a tension of 10 N and 40 N on the rods of half the length ? I got my answer by calculus method but your method seems to be very easy.

Yash Choudhary - 6 years, 5 months ago

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Note that the distribution of tension remains the same, It is frame invariant as any other force, but each particle feels to be under a different tension in this frame because it is not accelerating and hence should experience a pseudoforce,, So in this frame, the average tension in right half is 10N and in left 40 N,, To find the actual distribution of tension , we need calculus,,

And the reason being that , imagine a spring being pulled by F N , and imagine the other end attached to wall, it will elongate till its tension (kx) becomes equal to the force applied, in that case, the wall applies as much force upon the spring as the external force,

similarly here,, the 10N force is applied force, and the centre of rod can be thought to provide 10N to the right from the centre, like the wall

@Yash Choudhary

Mvs Saketh - 6 years, 5 months ago

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I got it thank you for explaining.

Yash Choudhary - 6 years, 5 months ago

used exactly the same method :)

Cody Martin - 6 years, 3 months ago

Relevant wiki: elastic

Tension decreases linearly along the rod as we move from right to left.

Therefore, instead of integrating for each small element of rod, we can directly take the average

i.e. we can assume uniform tension of (10+40)/2=25 N along the rod.

Then using Hooke's law, we directly get l=1m.

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