Without Integration III

Calculus Level 3

Which is larger? S = 0 π 2 sin ( sin x ) d x C = 0 π 2 cos ( cos x ) d x S=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}2}\sin(\sin x)\, dx \\C=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}2}\cos(\cos x)\, dx

S = C S=C S > C S>C S < C S<C

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

4 solutions

Chew-Seong Cheong
Aug 11, 2019

C = 0 π 2 cos ( cos x ) d x By reflections a b f ( x ) d x = a b f ( a + b x ) d x = 0 π 2 cos ( sin x ) d x = 0 π 2 sin ( π 2 sin x ) d x \begin{aligned} C & = \int_0^\frac \pi 2 \cos (\cos x) \ dx & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{By reflections }\int_a^b f(x)\ dx = \int_a^b f(a+b-x) \ dx \\ & = \int_0^\frac \pi 2 \cos (\sin x) \ dx \\ & = \int_0^\frac \pi 2 \sin \left(\frac \pi 2 - \sin x \right) \ dx \end{aligned}

For x [ 0 , π 2 ] x \in \left[0, \frac \pi 2\right] , the integrand of S S , sin ( sin x ) [ 0 , sin 1 ] \sin (\sin x) \in [0, \sin 1] and that of C C , sin ( π 2 sin x ) [ sin ( π 2 1 ) , 1 ] \sin \left(\frac \pi 2 - \sin x\right) \in \left[\sin \left(\frac \pi 2- 1 \right), 1\right] , this implies that S < C \boxed {S< C} .


Reference: Reflections

What is the name of the identity in the first line? Beautiful solution

Trung Phan - 1 year, 10 months ago

Log in to reply

It is call reflections .

Chew-Seong Cheong - 1 year, 10 months ago

In the 2nd to last integral, where did the -1 come from?

Joe Mansley - 1 year, 7 months ago

Log in to reply

Same question.

Toshit Jain - 1 year, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Sorry, my mistake. I have changed to the right solution.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 1 year, 4 months ago
Pedro Cardoso
Aug 11, 2019

Since x > sin x , sin x > sin ( sin x ) \displaystyle x > \sin x, \, \, \sin x > \sin(\sin x) , so S < 0 π 2 sin x d x = 1 \displaystyle S < \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin x \, dx = 1 .

And since 1 x 2 2 < cos x , 1 cos 2 x 2 = 3 4 cos ( 2 x ) 4 < cos ( cos x ) \displaystyle 1-\frac{x^2}{2} < \cos x, \, \, 1-\frac{\cos^2x}{2} = \frac{3}{4}-\frac{\cos(2x)}{4} < \cos(\cos x) , so C > 0 π 2 3 4 cos ( 2 x ) 4 d x = 3 4 π 2 1.17 C > \displaystyle \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{3}{4}-\frac{\cos(2x)}{4} dx = \frac{3}{4} \cdot \frac{\pi}{2} \approx 1.17

We have S < 1 < 1.17 < C S < 1 < 1.17 < C , so S < C \boxed{S < C}

Some good intuition for this problem is that both cos ( x ) \cos(x) and sin ( x ) \sin(x) range from 1 -1 to 1 1 , but when x x is close to 0 0 , cos ( x ) \cos(x) is close to 1 1 and sin ( x ) \sin(x) is close to 0 0 , so you would be correct to suppose S < C S < C .

In fact, in the limit, cos ( cos ( . . . cos ( cos ( x ) ) ) ) \cos(\cos(...\cos(\cos(x)))) becomes a constant function f ( x ) = k 0.74 f(x) = k \approx 0.74 , where k k is such that cos ( k ) = k \cos(k) = k . Similarly sin ( sin ( . . . sin ( sin ( x ) ) ) ) \sin(\sin(...\sin(\sin(x)))) becomes the 0 \bm{0} function, although it takes a lot longer to converge

Pedro Cardoso - 1 year, 10 months ago

On the interval [ 0 , π / 2 ] s i n ( s i n ( x ) ) < c o s ( c o s ( x ) ) [0,\pi/2] sin(sin(x))<cos(cos(x)) and furthermore that these two functions are always positive and monotonically increasing (this could be shown by differentiating the two function. Because of this, one could see that the area under sin(sin(x)) must be less than cos(cos(x))

J 0 ( 1 ) > H 0 ( 1 ) J_0(1)>\pmb{H}_0(1)

Please elaborate......Or atleast tell what those symbols mean??

Aaghaz Mahajan - 1 year, 9 months ago

I used the standard nomenclature for those functions: J 0 ( 1 ) J_0(1) and H 0 ( 1 ) \pmb{H}_0(1) .

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 9 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...