x → 0 lim x 1 − cos x = ?
Bonus: Solve this question without using L'Hôpital's rule .
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x → 0 lim x 1 − cos x = x → 0 lim x ( 1 + cos x ) ( 1 − cos x ) ( 1 + cos x ) = x → 0 lim x ( 1 + cos x ) sin 2 x = x → 0 lim x sin x ⋅ ( 1 + cos x ) sin x = 1 × 0 = 0 .
another solution is to graph (1-cosx)/(x) and you will find that it's approaching 0 from positive and negative direction
x → 0 lim x 1 − cos x = x → 0 lim x 2 sin 2 ( 2 x ) = x → 0 lim 2 x × x → 0 lim ⎝ ⎜ ⎛ 2 x sin ( 2 x ) ⎠ ⎟ ⎞ 2 = 0 × 1 = 0
x趋向于0时cosx趋向于1,1-cosx则无限趋近于0,在分母x无限趋近于0却不为0时分式有意义,所以L可以无限趋近于0,但严格地说不等于0
Since x appoaches 0 , we can assign a value that is very near to 0 , then substitute and use a calculator. Let x = 0 . 0 0 0 0 1
lim x → 0 x 1 − cos x = 0 . 0 0 0 0 1 1 − cos 0 . 0 0 0 0 1 = 0
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L = x → 0 lim x 1 − cos x = x → 0 lim x 1 − ( 1 − 2 ! x 2 + 4 ! x 4 − 6 ! x 6 + . . . ) = x → 0 lim x 2 ! x 2 − 4 ! x 4 + 6 ! x 6 + . . . = x → 0 lim ( 2 ! x − 4 ! x 3 + 6 ! x 5 + . . . ) = 0 By Maclaurin series