Work Done by Force Field

A particle in the x y xy -plane is acted upon by a force field described by the equation below: F = y ı ^ + x ȷ ^ . \large{\vec{F} = -y \hat{\imath} + x \hat{\jmath}}. How much work does the force field do on the particle if the particle makes one complete revolution over a unit circle centered on the origin?


Notes:

  • ı ^ \hat{\imath} and ȷ ^ \hat{\jmath} denote unit vectors in the x x and y y directions, respectively.
  • Give your answer as a positive number, to 3 decimal places.


The answer is 6.283.

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2 solutions

Switching to polar coordinates, we have that F = < sin ( θ ) , cos ( θ ) > \vec{F} = <-\sin(\theta), \cos(\theta) > . Then on the circular path C C , i.e., r = < cos ( θ ) , sin ( θ ) > \vec{r} = <\cos(\theta), \sin(\theta)> , the work done is

W = C F d r = 0 2 π F d r d θ d θ = 0 2 π < sin ( θ ) , cos ( θ ) > < sin ( θ ) , cos ( θ ) > d θ = W = \displaystyle\int_{C} \vec{F} \cdot \vec{dr} = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \vec{F} \cdot \dfrac{\vec{dr}}{d\theta} d\theta = \int_{0}^{2\pi} <-\sin(\theta), \cos(\theta)> \cdot <-\sin(\theta), \cos(\theta)> d\theta =

0 2 π ( sin 2 ( θ ) + cos 2 ( θ ) ) d θ = 0 2 π d θ = 2 π = 6.283 \displaystyle \int_{0}^{2\pi} (\sin^{2}(\theta) + \cos^{2}(\theta)) d\theta = \int_{0}^{2\pi} d\theta = 2\pi = \boxed{6.283} to 3 decimal places.

Sir, Isnt this a lovely problem? Thanks @Steven Chase for this problem. I enjoyed it

Md Zuhair - 4 years, 3 months ago

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Thanks. Many times with vector field problems, going in a closed loop means zero work done. I thought it would be fun to do the exact opposite.

Steven Chase - 4 years, 3 months ago

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Yes. Thats correct

Md Zuhair - 4 years, 3 months ago
Md Zuhair
Mar 12, 2017

Relevant wiki: Uniform Circular Motion - Problem Solving

Oops the image has wrong expression of F \huge{\text{Oops the image has wrong expression of F}}

Now see , Always Angle between F F and d x dx is 0 0 .

So Work done = 0 2 π F . d x \large{\int^{2 \pi}_{0} F .dx} [ 2 π 2 \pi Because Circumference = 2 π . 1 = 2 π 2 \pi . 1 = 2 \pi ]

So now, W = F 0 2 π d x \large{\int^{2 \pi}_{0}} dx

So W = F ( 2 π ) W = F * ( 2 \pi)

Now Magnitude of F = 1 N F = 1N , So

W = 6.283 J W = 6.283 J

But why will it move ina circle

saptarshi dasgupta - 4 years, 2 months ago

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Bhai ami Kolkata theke.. Question ta por thik kore

Md Zuhair - 4 years, 2 months ago

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