What's wrong with this proof? 1+2+4+... = -1

What's wrong with this proof?

Let \(S = 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + ... \)

Then note that S=1+2+4+8+...=1+2(1+2+4+8+...)=1+2SS = 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + ... = 1 + 2(1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + ...) = 1 + 2S

And thus S=1S = -1.

#HelpMe! #Proofs #Math

Note by Zi Song Yeoh
8 years, 5 months ago

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17 votes

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Comments

Essentially it has to do with the fact that you're ignoring the last term, which is infinitely large and therefore very important. Let's consider this instead: Sn=1+2+4+8++2n+1=1+2(1+2++2n)=1+2Sn1S_n = 1+2+4+8 + \ldots + 2^{n+1} = 1 + 2(1+2+ \ldots + 2^{n}) = 1+ 2\cdot S_{n-1}

Take S1=7S_1 = 7 and note that Sn=1+2Sn1>2Sn1S_n = 1+ 2\cdot S_{n-1} > 2\cdot S_{n-1}, so clearly Sn>72n1S_n > 7 \cdot 2^{n-1} for n>1n>1. Hence your sum diverges (taking nn large).

In your solution, you're taking Sn=Sn1S_n = S_{n-1}, but we in fact know that SnSn1=2n+1S_n - S_{n-1} = 2^{n+1}, so you're treating 2n+12^{n+1} as negligible for large nn. This is generally a bad idea.

Eli Ross - 8 years, 5 months ago

The first issue is whether or not SS makes sense in this context. Remember that the order of operations are functions +,,×,÷:R×RR +, -, \times, \div : \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}. Composition of functions is only defined for finite compositions, which means that we can only sum up terms finitely many times. Analysis is concerned with rigourizing what it means to be the sum of an infinite series. For example, we have all heard that for a Geometric Progression, we have a "sum to infinity" which has value a1r \frac {a}{1-r} , subject to the condition that r<1 |r| < 1. In general, infinite sums can be tricky to understand. For example, what is the value of the infinite sum 11+11+11+1.... 1 -1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 .... ? Is it 0, or 1? Is it both? If so, is this a proof that 0=10=1?

Let's assume that we dealt with the first issue, and have properly defined SS to be \infty, whatever that means.

The second issue, is whether we can extend the domain of our operations +,,×,÷+, -, \times, \div to include \infty. Sadly, this is not the case, especially when ,÷ -, \div are involved. We cannot say that =0 \infty - \infty = 0 , or that ÷=1 \infty \div \infty = 1 . We will need to learn how to extend this on a case by case basis. In fact, we will no longer have a (single-value) function, and \infty - \infty could actually be any value, from -\infty to \infty!

Calvin Lin Staff - 8 years, 5 months ago

My guess is that S is not really a number in the normal sense; it is ∞, which doesn't really follow these kinds of rules. If ∞ + ∞ = ∞, can we say that ∞ = 0? No. I'm not sure how you would say this in formal mathematical terms though.

Tony Jiang - 8 years, 5 months ago

Nothing is wrong if you are looking in the 2-adic numbers :P

Lawrence Sun - 8 years, 5 months ago

Even when a sum converges in a special way, we might run into issues with how we consider SS. This "convergence", called "conditionally convergent", means that while limnk=1nak\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k indeed converges, limnk=1nak\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \left|a_k\right| does not. As one example, we often consider the sum limnk=1n(1)k+1k=ln(2)\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k} = \ln(2). But, if we rearranged the terms in the summation from (1)k+1k\frac{{(-1)}^{k+1}}{k} for k=1,2,k=1,2,\ldots to 12j114j214j\frac{1}{2j-1} - \frac{1}{4j-2} - \frac{1}{4j} for j=1,2,j=1,2,\ldots, we would have the "same" terms in the summation, yet get a sum of ln(2)\ln\left(\sqrt{2}\right). While it's a bit more complicated than what you've asked/we're talking about here, it's a pretty interesting phenomenon, and certainly related. You can read some more about it here.

To elaborate on the last point with a little less notation, here is why this dilemma is analogous to yours, even when this sum converges:

S=112+1314+S = 1-\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} + \ldots

Also, rearranging terms:

S=11214+131618+15110112+S = 1- \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{5} - \frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{12} + \ldots

But since 12j112(2j1)=12(2j1)\frac{1}{2j-1} - \frac{1}{2(2j-1)} = \frac{1}{2(2j-1)}, this is also:

S=1214+1618+=12(112+1314+)S = \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{8} + \ldots = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \left( 1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} + \ldots\right).

So it appears that S=12SS = \frac{1}{2} S, which seems not to make sense since we determined that SS was ln(2)\ln(2). While your solution makes the error in assuming Sn=Sn1S_n = S_{n-1} (see my post three below), here we have made the error in assuming that a rearranged sum SS' must satisfy S=SS' = S. This is an example of why considering indices of infinite sums/order of summation - even for converging sums where those trailing terms are very small - is so critical.

Eli Ross - 8 years, 5 months ago

sum to an infinite geometric series a/(1-r)is valid only when -1<r<1 . That is if the series is conversing to 0 ,then we can use a/(1-r). Given series is diverging in nature. So, it is wrong

Sanjiv Kumar - 8 years, 5 months ago

infinite sum of a gp (geometric progression) is only valid when the common ratio is less than one and greater than minus one, and thus making the desired result. but when the common ratio is greater than one or less than minus one, the last term of an infinite gp is either infinity or minus infinity and thus the sum would amount to each of infinity or minus infinity and the method would not be valid...

Indrasis Roy - 8 years, 5 months ago

Ya, this is what I thought.

There should be something to do with the \infty

But I'm not so sure...

Zi Song Yeoh - 8 years, 5 months ago

I was taught that a diverging series like this couldn't be written in terms of S = (...). Rather, as a limit, like limni=0n2i\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i=0}^{n}2^{i}. Even i=02i\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}2^{i} was improper. \infty isn't really a number; it's like a "concept" that can only be approached. At least that's what I learned in school. =P

Tony Jiang - 8 years, 5 months ago

in fact we have 20+2+2² 2^{0} + 2 +2² ... 2n=2n+11 2^{n}= 2^{n+1} -1 and for each intenger a, a0+a+a² a^{0} + a +a² ... ana^{n} = an+11a1 \frac{ a^{n+1} -1}{a-1}

Anas Elidrissi - 8 years, 5 months ago

here's an other example

let x=0,9999999...

then 10x=9,99999...

therefor 9x=9

so x=1!!!

Anas Elidrissi - 8 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

But this is true

Shourya Pandey - 8 years, 3 months ago

From the geometric progression, sum(which is calculate by the sigma). meanwhile the unknown goes to the unlimited, the answer cannot be come out as such an specific number

Wonil Lee - 8 years, 5 months ago

@Anas E. - In fact, that's a valid use of this method. We indeed have 0.9=10.\overline{9} = 1. It's similar to Zi Song Y.'s, except that SnSn1=910nS_n - S_{n-1} = \frac{9}{10^n}, so for large nn, that last term IS negligible, and taking the limit you arrive at the result you found.

Eli Ross - 8 years, 5 months ago

hi

but it's "near" to 1, but it's not 1

like f(x)=1x\frac{1}{x}

for x= \infty, f(x) is reaaally near to 0, but it's in NOT 0.

Anas Elidrissi - 8 years, 5 months ago

@Anas E. - It's exactly 1. The number 0.90.\overline{9} is the number with infinitely many 9s, so you are essentially taking the limit. Further discussion/clarification can be found here.

Eli Ross - 8 years, 5 months ago

I feel that the series being a geometric progression and common ratio being 2, which obviously is greater than one, sum is taken as infinite. Now infinite - infinite can be any real number or positive or negative infinite, while here it is zero.

Aaditya Gupta - 7 years, 2 months ago
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