Main post link -> https://brilliant.org/mathematics-problem/2013c13/?group=YUgoPeVAfUIe
If you look at the written solutions, most of them count the probability as positive outcomes / total outcomes, and use the Hockey stick theorem to interpret the numerator.
Just as the technique of Choosing Correct Variables allows us to simplify the problem, the approach of finding a different perspective can allow us to cut to the heart of the matter. What is a possible different interpretation in this problem? Can you find a one-line solution to this problem? (I'd allow up to 4 short lines.)
Avi has an insight, and states that
By experimentation with smaller numbers of urns and balls , the number of urns doesn't matter, as long as .
How do we prove this insight, without having to calculate the number of outcomes all over again? What is this probability?
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
The first time I tried this problem I thought it said "with replacement" ... which would be a substantially more difficult problem :)
I guess it can be proven by induction...
Suppose we have n urns (each with n−1 balls), with probability P of a selection of b balls all being white as b+11.
To get the case with n+1 urns we add a black ball to every existing urn, and also add a new urn with all white balls.
For a particular pre-existing urn with w white balls, we have: Pold=(bn−1)(bw) Pnew=(bn)(bw) and PoldPnew works out to be nn−b
There are n out of n+1 urns with the above probability ratio change, and 1 urn where the probability is 1. So the new combined probability is P=n+1n(b+11nn−b)+n+11(1) which simplifies down to b+11.
Log in to reply
That's a start, finding another way to work at the problem.
The fact that PoldPnew is a constant across the urns is interesting, and would seem counter-intuitive to me. I wouldn't have suspected that initially.
Here's another hint - Consider a urn with 2014 balls (yes, just 1 urn). How do we make this into the above problem?
Log in to reply
I got nothing... next hint? :)
I did think of another angle that works but isn't any simpler than the given proofs so far
Log in to reply
For Urn i, let it have i−1 white balls labelled from 1 to i−1, and 2013−i black balls labelled from i+1 to 2014.
How does this relate to a urn with 2014 balls?
hello I though about it that way: consider an urn with i balls. ther are (132012) ways to chose our 13 ball. there are (13i−1) way to chose 13 white balls, and (132013−i) to chose 13 black balls. so the probability must be ∑i=120132013∗(132012)(132013−i)+(13i−1) or alternatively ∑i=120132013∗(132012)(132013−i)+(132012−i) wich is easy to compute