For a given polynomial of degree n with roots r1,r2,…rn, let sk be the kth symmetric sum and pk=∑i=1nrik is the kth power sum
Claim: If s1=s2=s3=...=sk=0,then p1=p2=p3=.,..=pk=0. where
Proof: By induction on k.
Base case: Since s1=p1, hence if s1=0 then p1=0.
Induction step: Suppose that for some j, we know that p1,p2,…pj=0. Then, by newtons sum, we have
pk=s1pk−1−s2pk−2+....+(−1)k−1sk−2p2+(−1)ksk−1p1+(−1)k+1ksk=0+0+…+0.
Easy Math Editor
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Comments
There's no need to apply Newton's Sum.
If s1=s2=⋯=sk=0, then the roots satisfy the equation, xk=0. So all its roots are 0, then by definition, p1=p2=⋯=pk=0.
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what about x100−x2+x+1=0 i meant for that
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I don't follow. What about that polynomial?
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this
look atLog in to reply
s1=s2=…=s98=0. And s99=−99=0.
That one only applies forLog in to reply
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@Aareyan Manzoor Great note! I've cleaned it up so that it's much easier to understand what you are saying.
Presenting it via a proof by induction isn't necessary, but helps build the idea that all we need to show pj=0 is up to sj=0.
By improving the format of your presentation, you make it immediately clear what you want to show, and why it's interesting.
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thank you sir!
nice way....