For any number where and any number which mod
mod is equal to 1
I'm not quite sure how this can be useful, or if people have discovered it, but who knows. Please tell me if people have, and I'm coding a program that'll test it up to about a 100 in x and 1000 in y. I'll be back with the results and the github link to the program.
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The statement is false... let me disprove it...
Assume the statement is true, that is for any number x⩾2 and for any number y and x∤y which is y≡0(modx). (x+y)2=x2+2xy+y2≡y2≡1(modx) Hence y2−1 must be divisable by x, now we can conclude for any number y and x∤y, x∣y2−1.
However, since y2−1=(y+1)(y−1), by Euclid's lemma, we get either x∣y+1 is true or x∣y−1 is true, so the equivalence (x+y)2≡1(modx) cannot hold if x∣y+1 and x∣y−1 are both false.
For example, assume x=5 and y=7, we have satisfied the conditions y≡0(modx) and x⩾2, here, x∣y+1 and x∣y−1 are both false. (x+y)2=(5+7)2=122=144≡4≡1(mod5)
Other pairs of counterexamples {x,y} are {10,8}, {6,13}, {25,9}... (there are infinity of them!) This statement can be made true if you add one more condition: one of the numbers y+1 or y−1 must be divisable by x.
Therefore, the corrected statement are as follows:
For any number x⩾2, y, x∤y, if either x∣y+1 or x∣y−1 is true, then (x+y)2≡1(modx)
For example, assume x=6, y=5, we have satisfied x⩾2, x∤y, x∣y+1 (x+y)2=(6+5)2=112=121≡1(mod6)
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Thanks, I came up with it in the car, so who knows. And I coded it, most of them didn't work. It's basically y if (y+1) or (y-1) mod x equals 1? Thanks