Through this note,I seek to present to the Brilliant community a new way of proving that r=0∑r=n(rn)=2n.
First Method:
We already know this way,(1+x)n=r=0∑n(rn)xr⟹(1+1)n=2n=r=0∑n(rn),which is what we wanted to prove.Second Method:Consider n identical coins.Each coin has two faces,Heads and Tails,now we count the number of ways in which their faces can be arranged,in two different ways:
First Way:Rule of Product,number of ways=2nSecond Way:
Let us say that in the rth arrangement there are r heads,so number of arrangements=(rn).Here 0≤r≤n,hence total number of ways=r=0∑r=n(rn),hence we get r=0∑n(rn)=2n.And done!
#Combinatorics
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