A Question

Let p(x) be a polynomial of degree 8, such that p(k)=1k\frac{1}{k} for k=1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9. What is the value of p(10)?

Note by Snehdeep Arora
7 years, 9 months ago

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Comments

The mualphatheta link has (almost) this question set as a problem - the answer link did not work for me. Note that xp(x)1xp(x)-1 is a degree 99 polynomial with 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,91,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 as zeros, and hence xp(x)1  =  A(x1)(x2)(x3)(x4)(x5)(x6)(x7)(x8)(x9) xp(x) - 1 \; = \; A(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)(x-7)(x-8)(x-9) Putting x=0x=0 we see that 1=A×9!-1 \,=\, -A\times9! and so A=19!A = \tfrac{1}{9!}. Then 10p(10)1=A×9!=110p(10)-1 \,=\, A\times9! = 1, and hence p(10)=15p(10) = \tfrac{1}{5}.

Mark Hennings - 7 years, 9 months ago

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As a side note, you should verify that 1+19!i=19(xi)x \frac{ 1 + \frac{1}{9!} \prod_{i=1}^9 (x-i) } { x }

is indeed a polynomial. This follows because the constant term in the numerator cancels out, so it is a multiple of xx.

It is possible (especially in scenarios where the exact roots are uncertain), for the function that you define to end up being a rational function, instead of a polynomial.

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years, 9 months ago

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I already did this when I evaluated AA, because I chose the value of AA to be such that the value of 1+Aj=19(xj) 1 + A\prod_{j=1}^9(x-j) when x=0x=0 was 00, which means that this polynomial has no constant term and hence can be safely divided by xx.

Mark Hennings - 7 years, 9 months ago

This will do it : http://www.mualphatheta.org/problemcorner/MathematicalLog/Issues/0402/MathematicalLogProblemistSpring02.aspx

Vikram Waradpande - 7 years, 9 months ago

Try remainder theorem, although it will take many steps.

Siddharth Kumar - 7 years, 9 months ago

you can use newton-ramphson techhnique, newton forward or backward formula . it will be easy .

Ashok Kumar - 7 years, 9 months ago
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