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2 \times 3
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One way to solve this is to simplify by the common factor x first, and then to use algebraic long division in a faster way ( " +...+ " after recognising the repetitive parts):
How to find that 1 will be the coefficient for this much time or 4 will be there for only few numbers and lastly 5 will come... I mean can you explain the pattern a bit more clearly...
For the algebraic (or polynomial) long division method in general, you can find many notes, videos etc. on the Internet (e.g. https://brilliant.org/wiki/polynomial-division/ or https://revisionmaths.com/advanced-level-maths-revision/pure-maths/algebra/algebraic-long-division ).
Just follow the method in the case of this division and you will see. (The coefficient increases at some points, because you will have the same powers of x from your remainder (at the previous step) and you also have an original term there (e.g. x48+x48=2x46
@Zee Ell
–
Did you perform the whole long division or somehow you analyzed and figured out the coefficients??? I recently found a new method to solve it..... I will be posting it as question.....
@Puneet Pinku
–
I started the whole, but jumped to the key points (where the remainders "got company" from the original polynomial) after recognising the pattern. With further analysis, the process can be shortened even further.
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
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2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
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One way to solve this is to simplify by the common factor x first, and then to use algebraic long division in a faster way ( " +...+ " after recognising the repetitive parts):
x2−1x80+x48+x24+x8+1=x78+x76+...+x48+2x46+2x44+...+2x24+3x22+3x20+...+3x8+4x6+4x4+4x2+4+x2−15
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How to find that 1 will be the coefficient for this much time or 4 will be there for only few numbers and lastly 5 will come... I mean can you explain the pattern a bit more clearly...
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For the algebraic (or polynomial) long division method in general, you can find many notes, videos etc. on the Internet (e.g. https://brilliant.org/wiki/polynomial-division/ or https://revisionmaths.com/advanced-level-maths-revision/pure-maths/algebra/algebraic-long-division ).
Just follow the method in the case of this division and you will see. (The coefficient increases at some points, because you will have the same powers of x from your remainder (at the previous step) and you also have an original term there (e.g. x48+x48=2x46
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We see that after dividing by x, we have the expression
(x+1)(x−1)x80+x48+x24+x8+1
Now consider
(x+1)(x−1)x80+x48+x24+x8+1−(x+1)(x−1)5
=(x+1)(x−1)x80+x48+x24+x8−4
We see that x−1 and x+1 are factors of x80+x48+x24+x8−4 by the factor theorem as 1 and -1 are roots of this polynomial. Hence we can write
(x+1)(x−1)x80+x48+x24+x8−4=(x+1)(x−1)x80+x48+x24+x8+1−(x+1)(x−1)5=p(x)+(x+1)(x−1)0
For some polynomial p(x)
Therefore
(x+1)(x−1)x80+x48+x24+x8+1=p(x)+(x+1)(x−1)5.
Can you just point out the mistake in my solution:
Let the remainder be r(x)=(Ax^2+Bx+C).
let P(x) be the polynomial on the numerator.
P(x)=(x^3-x)g(x)+r(x)
setting x=0,
P(0)=r(0)=C
or,C=0...................(1)
setting x=1,
P(1)=r(1)=A+B
or,A+B=5................(2)
setting x=-1,
P(-1)=r(-1)=A-B
or,A-B=-5..................(3)
Solving (1),(2),and (3), we get A=C=0,and B=5.
So, remainder=5x (ans)
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The problem is, that x cannot be 0. That would make the denominator of the fraction zero (division by zero).