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2 \times 3
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2^{34}
234
a_{i-1}
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Comments
I think there isnt.let P-2=x.so P-1=1+x.now,finding the binomial expansion of(1+x)^p and putting it in our expression,it is found that our expression is always divisible by p.
There cannot be such a function which always gives a prime. Its a well known fact. I think you can find the proof in Titu Andreescu's '104 Number Theory Problems'
Another empirical relation i founded was that,
2pn+1=prime number or a number having its factors as prime,where p is a prime number,n is any odd natural number
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This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
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to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
I think there isnt.let P-2=x.so P-1=1+x.now,finding the binomial expansion of(1+x)^p and putting it in our expression,it is found that our expression is always divisible by p.
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That is why i divided P−2 , or else it is always composite
There cannot be such a function which always gives a prime. Its a well known fact. I think you can find the proof in Titu Andreescu's '104 Number Theory Problems'
Another empirical relation i founded was that, 2pn+1=prime number or a number having its factors as prime,where p is a prime number,n is any odd natural number