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Comments
It took me 1 day to personally find out the mistakes that the university professors have done. Those people forgot the basic conditions required for treating a series as converging infinite series. In short this was just one stupid act of getting fame
Let S1 = 1 + -1 + -1 + 1 + -1 .....up to infinity = 1/2 (this can be proved by using the sum of infinite GP and even by simpler method.
Let S2 = 1 -2 +3 -4 + 5 -6...up to infinity
S2 + S2 = (1 -2 +3 -4....)+
(0 +1 -2 +3..)
=S1
Therefore, 2 S2 = S1 = 1/2
Therefore, S2=1/4
Sorry,I could not present it properly here....
For a better explanation , watch Numberphile on Youtube - https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=w-I6XTVZXww&list=TLB3KTqn9SZmDUThXfkDzwmDz8PRN0U-K-
This stuff can never ever be proved by "using sum of infinite GP or by any other simple maths ".
But I thank u for that video link which shows us but i cant understand it as it involves some higher mathematics which i haven't yet studied
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
It took me 1 day to personally find out the mistakes that the university professors have done. Those people forgot the basic conditions required for treating a series as converging infinite series. In short this was just one stupid act of getting fame
are u sure???....could u show the proof???
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Please see my reply to Achint Gupta..
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Saw it...The numberphile video was amazing!!...Thanx!!
hows this possible???? I mean sum of positive natural numbers is negative !!!!!! How ???
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Let S1 = 1 + -1 + -1 + 1 + -1 .....up to infinity = 1/2 (this can be proved by using the sum of infinite GP and even by simpler method. Let S2 = 1 -2 +3 -4 + 5 -6...up to infinity S2 + S2 = (1 -2 +3 -4....)+ (0 +1 -2 +3..) =S1 Therefore, 2 S2 = S1 = 1/2 Therefore, S2=1/4
Let S3 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5.... Now, S3 - S2 = (1 + 2 + 3 +4...) -(1 -2 +3 -4..) = 4 + 8 + 12 +16..... = 4 (1+ 2 +3 +4...) = 4 (S3) Therefore, 3 (S3) = - S2 S3 = -1/12...
Sorry,I could not present it properly here.... For a better explanation , watch Numberphile on Youtube - https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=w-I6XTVZXww&list=TLB3KTqn9SZmDUThXfkDzwmDz8PRN0U-K-
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This stuff can never ever be proved by "using sum of infinite GP or by any other simple maths ". But I thank u for that video link which shows us but i cant understand it as it involves some higher mathematics which i haven't yet studied
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http://scientopia.org/blogs/goodmath/2014/01/17/bad-math-from-the-bad-astronomer/
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S1 = 1 + -1 +1 + -1 ...... S1 + S1 =( 1 + -1 + 1 + -1 + ...)+ ( 1 + -1 + 1 + -1...) 2 (S1) = 1 S1 = 1/2 ..Hence...
hey, that was grt proof.
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