This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science
related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should
explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments
should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
Use the emojis to react to an explanation, whether you're congratulating a job well done , or just really confused .
Ask specific questions about the challenge or the steps in somebody's explanation. Well-posed questions can add a lot to the discussion, but posting "I don't understand!" doesn't help anyone.
Try to contribute something new to the discussion, whether it is an extension, generalization or other idea related to the challenge.
Stay on topic — we're all here to learn more about math and science, not to hear about your favorite get-rich-quick scheme or current world events.
Markdown
Appears as
*italics* or _italics_
italics
**bold** or __bold__
bold
- bulleted - list
bulleted
list
1. numbered 2. list
numbered
list
Note: you must add a full line of space before and after lists for them to show up correctly
Great solution Pranav! This is indeed an extremely difficult problem (at least for me). I tried many things but was unsuccessful. Each and every step is just awesome!!! ⌣¨
Great solution. the last limit is 0 by Lebesgue DCT because the integrand is unbounded (therefore not Riemann integrable) but it still Lebesgue integrable.
If you don't want anything fancy, you can just plug p=1 and calculate the integral by parts to arrive to −2π and the rest follows.
I(p)=∫01−lnxxp−1li(x)dx=x=e−u22∫0∞e−pu2li(e−u2)du=p2∫0∞e−u2li(e−pu2)du
Use the series described in the logarithmic integral wiki page to get : I(p)=p2∫0∞e−u2(γ+lnpu2+n≥1∑n⋅n!(−1)np−nu2n)du Now, it is just expand and Taylor series to finish (too lazy to finish it) but here's the main idea : ∫0∞e−u2(γ+lnpu2)du=−2−πln(4p) and ∫0∞u2neu2du=2n(2n+1)!!
Nice approach but for the current problem, you don't really need to use such heavy machinery. There exists a very very elementary solution. Its been a week already but I think I should wait some more.
I really want to see an elementary approach (I guess that it starts with integration by parts).
BTW, why there is not much level 4 and 5 problems in Calculus ? I have just posted a limit and an easy integral, I hope that you like them.
@Haroun Meghaichi
–
Yes, integration by parts is the way to go but there's more to it.
I myself do not understand why there are not many problems in level 4 or 5. Posting the integrals as a problem doesn't help much because most of times, W|A or Mathematica are able to evaluate them. This is the reason I have posted the problems as notes.
The problems you posted are nice, I think I am onto something for the integral. I will post a complete solution tomorrow. Too tired at the moment. :)
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
First, to make it simpler to write, define:
li(x)=∫0xlnt1dt
li(x) (Logarithmic Integral ) is termed as a special function but the following solution will not use any special properties related to this function.
∫01li(x)lnx1xp−1dx
Use the substitution x=e−u2⇒dx=−2ue−u2du.
⇒I(p)=2∫0∞li(e−u2)e−pu2du
Divide both the sides by two and use integration by parts to obtain:
2I(p)=(uli(e−u2)e−pu2∣∣∣0∞−∫0∞u(li(e−u2)(−2pue−pu2)+ln(e−u2)e−pu2(−2ue−u2))du
⇒4I(p)=p∫0∞u2li(e−u2)e−pu2du−∫0∞e−(p+1)u2du
⇒4I(p)=−p2I′(p)−2p+1π
⇒I′(p)+2pI(p)=−2pp+1π
The above is a linear differential equation and its solution is:
I(p)=−2pπln(p+p+1)+C
As p tends to infinity, I(p) tends to zero, hence C=0.
⇒I(p)=−2pπln(p+p+1)
Please feel free to ask me any doubts regarding the solution. :)
Log in to reply
Great solution Pranav! This is indeed an extremely difficult problem (at least for me). I tried many things but was unsuccessful. Each and every step is just awesome!!! ⌣¨
Log in to reply
Thanks Karthik! :D
I am going to post more of these. Meanwhile, you can try this one too: Trigonometric Integral. :)
Great solution. the last limit is 0 by Lebesgue DCT because the integrand is unbounded (therefore not Riemann integrable) but it still Lebesgue integrable.
If you don't want anything fancy, you can just plug p=1 and calculate the integral by parts to arrive to −2π and the rest follows.
I(p)=∫01−lnxxp−1li(x) dx=x=e−u22∫0∞e−pu2li(e−u2)du=p2∫0∞e−u2li(e−pu2) du Use the series described in the logarithmic integral wiki page to get : I(p)=p2∫0∞e−u2(γ+lnpu2+n≥1∑n⋅n!(−1)np−nu2n) du Now, it is just expand and Taylor series to finish (too lazy to finish it) but here's the main idea : ∫0∞e−u2(γ+lnpu2)du=−2−πln(4p) and ∫0∞u2neu2 du=2n(2n+1)!!
Log in to reply
Nice approach but for the current problem, you don't really need to use such heavy machinery. There exists a very very elementary solution. Its been a week already but I think I should wait some more.
Log in to reply
I really want to see an elementary approach (I guess that it starts with integration by parts). BTW, why there is not much level 4 and 5 problems in Calculus ? I have just posted a limit and an easy integral, I hope that you like them.
Log in to reply
I myself do not understand why there are not many problems in level 4 or 5. Posting the integrals as a problem doesn't help much because most of times, W|A or Mathematica are able to evaluate them. This is the reason I have posted the problems as notes.
The problems you posted are nice, I think I am onto something for the integral. I will post a complete solution tomorrow. Too tired at the moment. :)
Log in to reply
@Haroun Meghaichi : I have posted the solution, you may check. :)
Fun Fact: This can also be written as −2pπarcsinh(p).