I found this neat little problem on a WOOT handout, and I wanted to share it with you guys.
Given any distinct numbers in the range to inclusive, prove that one can find two numbers with a difference of , , , and . In addition, prove that there might not necessarily be two numbers with a difference of .
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Indeed. That fact is the motivation behind this problem Brilli the Fortune Teller.
Actually, simply make a chart of all numbers (modn) where n denotes the number above
We can look for groups of consecutive numbers such that no two numbers differ by 9, 10, 11, 12 or 13. This will mean that we have groups of 9 numbers separated by 14, i.e.
2−10;24−32;46−54;68−76; and90−98.
(You'll see why I didn't start with 1 later.)
However this uses only 9×5=45 numbers; we still have to place 10 more.
These will have to be on the side of each group (anything else will lead to differences of 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13, which we do not want). Note however that when we do, it will lead to a difference with two results e.g. if we use 11 that will result in differences of 9 and 13. [The cases of 99 and 100 are insignificant as they only take up 2 out of 10 numbers.]
Using the numbers 11, 33, 55, 77, or 99 (i.e.just after each group) will create differences of 9 and 13. This leaves 5 more numbers.
We can place these before each group (i.e. 1, 23, 45, 67 or 89 ) to then create differences of 10 and 12, without creating a difference of 11.
Hence the final set of numbers will be
1−11;23−33;45−55;67−77; and89−99.
========================================================================================== I know this isn't the most rigorous proof but it essentially encapsulates the idea of using the pigeonhole principle. Starting in any other way would fail fairly quickly.
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How do you know that you must have the groups that you listed?
Why minus into minus is plus