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I will use proof by induction to show that if the formula is true for p(k) then it is true for p(k+1) and hence it is true for all natural numbers. Let s(k) denote the sum for values up to k. Base step: s(1) = 1, s(2) = 1+3 = 4 ... so the formula is true so far, as no counter-examples have been found. Inductive step: s(k+1) = k2 + 2(k+1) -1 = k2 +2k +1 = (k+1)2, as required. Q.E.D.
Q.E.D. is sometimes jokingly claimed to abbreviate "quite easily done", or "Quit. Enough done."
Note: I generally avoid making sarcastic remarks over the internet, unless the context is very easily deduced. his is because sacarsm doesn't transfer well.
You could also do it from r2−(r−1)2=2r−1 and them sum both sides from r=1 to r=k. The LHS just telescopes and gives you k2 and the RHS becomes the LHS of the given q :-)
I agree that it would provide a nice alternative as i=1∑nr2 - (r−1)2 = 6n(n+1)(2n+1) - 6n(n−1)(2n−1) = 6n [(2n2 +3n +1) - ((2n2 -3n +1)] = n2, which is less wordy :)
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This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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Sorry for bad drawing
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Nice Megh !
Impressive!
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Thanks dear friend
How do you come up with such beautiful thinking!? I bow before you! Lovely representation!
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Sorry for late response , thought about this long back
EXACTLY, This is the pattern that I saw which prompted me to make this note.
Let SO=n=1∑k(2n−1) and SE=n=1∑k(2n).
Then SE−SO=k and SO+SE=n=1∑2kn=22k(2k+1)=2k2+k.
Therefore (SO+SE)−(SE−SO)=(2k2+k)−k⟹2SO=2k2⟹SO=k2.
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Nice one! Did you know this from before of did you just derive this in two minutes?
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No, I just saw the pieces, put them together and out came the desired result. :)
I will use proof by induction to show that if the formula is true for p(k) then it is true for p(k+1) and hence it is true for all natural numbers. Let s(k) denote the sum for values up to k. Base step: s(1) = 1, s(2) = 1+3 = 4 ... so the formula is true so far, as no counter-examples have been found. Inductive step: s(k+1) = k2 + 2(k+1) -1 = k2 +2k +1 = (k+1)2, as required. Q.E.D.
starting with n=1, (21 - 1) + (22-1) + (23-1) +. . . . . . . . . (2k -1) 21 -1+ 22 - 1 +23 -1 +.............. 2k - 1 22 + 22 + 23 ....2k - k1 2(1 + 2+ 3+ ......k) - k using AP sum formula;{1 + 2+ 3+...k= k/2(21 +k-1) = k/2(1+k) keeping values, =2*k/2(1+k) - k = k^2 Q.E.D
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sorry a small doubt from childhood , seen in many books , what does Q.E.D means?
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It's quad era demonstrandum which means "which was to be demonstrated"
The "alternative" explanation is "Quite Easily Done". :)
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Q.E.D. Modern humorous usage
It's a running joke in the Math community. See for example, WikipediaNote: I generally avoid making sarcastic remarks over the internet, unless the context is very easily deduced. his is because sacarsm doesn't transfer well.
You could also do it from r2−(r−1)2=2r−1 and them sum both sides from r=1 to r=k. The LHS just telescopes and gives you k2 and the RHS becomes the LHS of the given q :-)
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I agree that it would provide a nice alternative as i=1∑n r2 - (r−1)2 = 6n(n+1)(2n+1) - 6n(n−1)(2n−1) = 6n [(2n2 +3n +1) - ((2n2 -3n +1)] = n2, which is less wordy :)