I want to ask also whether this proof is valid.
Given a,b,c positive real and different, prove that
2(a3+b3+c3)>bc(b+c)+ca(c+a)+ab(a+b)
I proved it using this inequality
(a+b)(a−b)2+(b+c)(b−c)2+(c+a)(c−a)2>0
Since
(a+b)(a−b)2>0
and etc.
Is that valid? Thank you
#Algebra
#Inequalities
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What makes you think that it is valid or invalid? Do you have any argument for either case? Do you have any concerns about either possibility?
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I do have a concern about this arguments (a+b)(a−b)2≥0 since a+b≥0 and (a−b)2≥0 I did it by backwards and proof it using the arguments I have. Or is there any other way how to proof that problem?
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What you have shown is that both of these terms are non-negative, and so when we multiply them they are still non-negative. This proof is valid.
A better way of writing up inequality solutions, is to do it in reverse from how you solved it. Namely:
This way, all that we need is the forward implications, instead of the backwards ones. It now becomes much clearer how to arrive at the solution.
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