How would you apply the Method of Differences to solve this problem:
f(x)f(x)f(x) is a polynomial of degree 2 such that that
f(1)∣f(2),f(2)∣f(3),f(3)∣f(4). f(1) | f(2), f(2) | f(3), f(3) | f(4). f(1)∣f(2),f(2)∣f(3),f(3)∣f(4).
Show that f(2)=±f(1) f(2) = \pm f(1) f(2)=±f(1).
Note by Calvin Lin 7 years, 11 months ago
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Let g(n)=f(n+1)−f(n),h(n)=g(n+1)−g(n)g(n)=f(n+1)-f(n), h(n)=g(n+1)-g(n)g(n)=f(n+1)−f(n),h(n)=g(n+1)−g(n). Then g is a polynomial of degree 1, and h is a polynomial of degree 0, i.e. a constant.
Clearly from the given condition, f(2)∣g(2)f(2)|g(2)f(2)∣g(2) and f(3)∣g(3)f(3)|g(3)f(3)∣g(3). Hence f(2)∣g(3)f(2)|g(3)f(2)∣g(3), so f(2)∣h(2)f(2)|h(2)f(2)∣h(2). But h(1)=h(2)h(1)=h(2)h(1)=h(2), so f(2)∣h(1)=g(2)−g(1)f(2)|h(1)=g(2)-g(1)f(2)∣h(1)=g(2)−g(1), so f(2)∣g(1)=f(2)−f(1)f(2)|g(1)=f(2)-f(1)f(2)∣g(1)=f(2)−f(1), so f(2)∣f(1)f(2)|f(1)f(2)∣f(1).
Since f(1)f(1)f(1) and f(2)f(2)f(2) divide each other, they must have the same absolute value, which was what we wanted.
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That's a great solution. I tried expressing f(2)f(2)f(2) as some factor times f(1)f(1)f(1) and f(3)f(3)f(3) as some factor times f(2)f(2)f(2), but I just got a big mess.
You can see how knowing the "method of differences" makes this proof seem almost immediate / obvious.
I would encourage you to work through your "big mess", especially in light of Ang's solution above. Use your notation to work through, see how it follows through, and why you weren't able to push through.
@Calvin Lin – Thanks for the suggestion. In fact it did work out quite nicely, although my solution is still not as slick as Ang's. Here it is:
Let f(2)=a⋅f(1),f(3)=b⋅f(2),f(4)=c⋅f(3).f(2) = a \cdot f(1), f(3) = b \cdot f(2), f(4) = c \cdot f(3).f(2)=a⋅f(1),f(3)=b⋅f(2),f(4)=c⋅f(3). Then using simple algebra, I obtain
{D2(1)=f(1)⋅(ab−2a+1),D2(2)=f(1)⋅(abc−2ab+a). \begin{cases} D_2(1) = f(1) \cdot (ab -2a +1), \\ D_2(2) = f(1) \cdot (abc -2ab+a). \end{cases} {D2(1)=f(1)⋅(ab−2a+1),D2(2)=f(1)⋅(abc−2ab+a).
As D2(n)D_2(n)D2(n) is constant for all nnn, those two expressions are the same:
f(1)⋅(ab−2a+1)=f(1)⋅(abc−2ab+a). f(1) \cdot (ab -2a +1) = f(1) \cdot (abc -2ab+a). f(1)⋅(ab−2a+1)=f(1)⋅(abc−2ab+a).
Division by a⋅f(1) a \cdot f(1) a⋅f(1) is allowed, as the conditions imply a,f(1)≠0 a,f(1) \not = 0a,f(1)=0:
b−2+1a=bc−2b+1. b-2 + \frac{1}{a} = bc - 2b +1. b−2+a1=bc−2b+1.
The right hand side is an integer, so the left hand side is too: this implies 1a \frac{1}{a}a1 is an integer as well, so a∈{−1,1}a\in \{ -1,1 \}a∈{−1,1}.
@Tim Vermeulen – This looks good.
However, why do you say that "the conditions imply a,f(1)≠0a, f(1) \neq 0a,f(1)=0"? How do the conditions imply that? Why can't either of them be 0?
@Calvin Lin – Well, f(1)∣f(2)f(1) \mid f(2)f(1)∣f(2), and 000 doesn't divide anything, so f(1)≠0f(1) \not = 0f(1)=0. Similarly, f(2)∣f(3) ⟹ f(2)≠0f(2) \mid f(3) \implies f(2) \not = 0f(2)∣f(3)⟹f(2)=0. And as a=f(2)f(1)a=\frac{f(2)}{f(1)}a=f(1)f(2), aaa is not 000 either.
@Tim Vermeulen – Rethink that statement. Review the definition of ∣ | ∣, which was given below.
In particular, Does 0∣k 0 \mid k 0∣k or k∣0 k \mid 0k∣0 ?
@Calvin Lin – That's interesting. I did think about whether 0∣00 \mid 00∣0, but I figured that didn't work, as 00\frac{0}{0}00 is undefined. But on the other hand, there is an integer aaa (there are plenty!) such that a⋅0=0a \cdot 0 = 0a⋅0=0. This doesn't completely destroy my argument, though, but it needs some refinement:
For the sake of contradiction, let's assume that f(1)=0f(1) = 0f(1)=0. Then f(1)∣f(2) ⟹ f(2)=0f(1) \mid f(2) \implies f(2) = 0f(1)∣f(2)⟹f(2)=0, because for every integer aaa, a⋅0=0a \cdot 0 = 0a⋅0=0. Similarly, f(2)∣f(3) ⟹ f(3)=0f(2) \mid f(3) \implies f(3) = 0f(2)∣f(3)⟹f(3)=0. So, f(1)=f(2)=f(3)=0f(1)=f(2)=f(3)=0f(1)=f(2)=f(3)=0. But f(x)f(x)f(x) is a second degree polynomial, so that is impossible. Therefore, the assumption that f(1)=0f(1)=0f(1)=0 was wrong, so f(1)≠0f(1) \not = 0f(1)=0. Using a similar argument (if I assume that f(2)=0f(2)=0f(2)=0), f(2)∣f(3) ⟹ f(3)=0f(2) \mid f(3) \implies f(3) = 0f(2)∣f(3)⟹f(3)=0 and f(3)∣f(4) ⟹ f(4)=0f(3) \mid f(4) \implies f(4) = 0f(3)∣f(4)⟹f(4)=0, which is not possible due to the degree of f(x)f(x)f(x), so f(2)≠0f(2) \not = 0f(2)=0. Finally, assuming a=0a=0a=0, f(2)=a⋅f(1) ⟹ f(2)=0f(2) = a \cdot f(1) \implies f(2)=0f(2)=a⋅f(1)⟹f(2)=0, but f(2)≠0f(2) \not = 0f(2)=0, so a≠0a \not = 0a=0.
I have made an assumption here: if f(x)f(x)f(x) is a second degree polynomial, then f(1)=f(2)=f(3)=0f(1)=f(2)=f(3)=0f(1)=f(2)=f(3)=0 is impossible. That is because D1(1)=f(2)−f(1)=0D_1(1)=f(2)-f(1)=0D1(1)=f(2)−f(1)=0 and D1(2)=f(3)−f(2)=0D_1(2)=f(3)-f(2)=0D1(2)=f(3)−f(2)=0, implying D2(1)=D1(2)−D1(1)=0D_2(1)=D_1(2)-D_1(1)=0D2(1)=D1(2)−D1(1)=0. But as f(x)f(x)f(x) is a second degree polynomial, D2(x)D_2(x)D2(x) is 2!=22! = 22!=2 times the leading coefficient of f(x), so that leading coefficient is 000. But a polynomial can't have a leading coefficient of 000, so the assumption that f(1)=f(2)=f(3)f(1)=f(2)=f(3)f(1)=f(2)=f(3) was false.
I could also have proved this by using the fact that a kkk-th degree polynomial has exactly kkk (complex) roots, but it was nice that the Method of Differences could prove this as well.
@Tim Vermeulen – Great analysis.
At this point, you should also question "Why did I need to deal with all of this, when Ang didn't?"
Hint: a∣1⇒a=±1 a \mid 1 \Rightarrow a = \pm 1 a∣1⇒a=±1.
I do not understand this notation. What do you mean by that?
I believe he is using the "divides" notation. That is, a∣b ⟺ ∃k∈Z:ak=b a|b \iff \exists k \in \mathbb{Z} : ak = b a∣b⟺∃k∈Z:ak=b
For someone not knowing that notation, your notation isn't really going to help, I'm afraid… ;-)
@Tim Vermeulen – If a∣ba|ba∣b then aaa divides bbb or aaa is a factor of bbb.
@Victor Phan – Yeah, I'm aware of that. :)
@Tim Vermeulen – Sorry! I was meant to say that to Carlos :D
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Let g(n)=f(n+1)−f(n),h(n)=g(n+1)−g(n). Then g is a polynomial of degree 1, and h is a polynomial of degree 0, i.e. a constant.
Clearly from the given condition, f(2)∣g(2) and f(3)∣g(3). Hence f(2)∣g(3), so f(2)∣h(2). But h(1)=h(2), so f(2)∣h(1)=g(2)−g(1), so f(2)∣g(1)=f(2)−f(1), so f(2)∣f(1).
Since f(1) and f(2) divide each other, they must have the same absolute value, which was what we wanted.
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That's a great solution. I tried expressing f(2) as some factor times f(1) and f(3) as some factor times f(2), but I just got a big mess.
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You can see how knowing the "method of differences" makes this proof seem almost immediate / obvious.
I would encourage you to work through your "big mess", especially in light of Ang's solution above. Use your notation to work through, see how it follows through, and why you weren't able to push through.
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Let f(2)=a⋅f(1),f(3)=b⋅f(2),f(4)=c⋅f(3). Then using simple algebra, I obtain
{D2(1)=f(1)⋅(ab−2a+1),D2(2)=f(1)⋅(abc−2ab+a).
As D2(n) is constant for all n, those two expressions are the same:
f(1)⋅(ab−2a+1)=f(1)⋅(abc−2ab+a).
Division by a⋅f(1) is allowed, as the conditions imply a,f(1)=0:
b−2+a1=bc−2b+1.
The right hand side is an integer, so the left hand side is too: this implies a1 is an integer as well, so a∈{−1,1}.
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However, why do you say that "the conditions imply a,f(1)=0"? How do the conditions imply that? Why can't either of them be 0?
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f(1)∣f(2), and 0 doesn't divide anything, so f(1)=0. Similarly, f(2)∣f(3)⟹f(2)=0. And as a=f(1)f(2), a is not 0 either.
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∣, which was given below.
Rethink that statement. Review the definition ofIn particular, Does 0∣k or k∣0 ?
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0∣0, but I figured that didn't work, as 00 is undefined. But on the other hand, there is an integer a (there are plenty!) such that a⋅0=0. This doesn't completely destroy my argument, though, but it needs some refinement:
That's interesting. I did think about whetherFor the sake of contradiction, let's assume that f(1)=0. Then f(1)∣f(2)⟹f(2)=0, because for every integer a, a⋅0=0. Similarly, f(2)∣f(3)⟹f(3)=0. So, f(1)=f(2)=f(3)=0. But f(x) is a second degree polynomial, so that is impossible. Therefore, the assumption that f(1)=0 was wrong, so f(1)=0. Using a similar argument (if I assume that f(2)=0), f(2)∣f(3)⟹f(3)=0 and f(3)∣f(4)⟹f(4)=0, which is not possible due to the degree of f(x), so f(2)=0. Finally, assuming a=0, f(2)=a⋅f(1)⟹f(2)=0, but f(2)=0, so a=0.
I have made an assumption here: if f(x) is a second degree polynomial, then f(1)=f(2)=f(3)=0 is impossible. That is because D1(1)=f(2)−f(1)=0 and D1(2)=f(3)−f(2)=0, implying D2(1)=D1(2)−D1(1)=0. But as f(x) is a second degree polynomial, D2(x) is 2!=2 times the leading coefficient of f(x), so that leading coefficient is 0. But a polynomial can't have a leading coefficient of 0, so the assumption that f(1)=f(2)=f(3) was false.
I could also have proved this by using the fact that a k-th degree polynomial has exactly k (complex) roots, but it was nice that the Method of Differences could prove this as well.
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At this point, you should also question "Why did I need to deal with all of this, when Ang didn't?"
Hint: a∣1⇒a=±1.
I do not understand this notation. What do you mean by that?
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I believe he is using the "divides" notation. That is, a∣b⟺∃k∈Z:ak=b
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For someone not knowing that notation, your notation isn't really going to help, I'm afraid… ;-)
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a∣b then a divides b or a is a factor of b.
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