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He has done nothing wrong. He was very careful with the wording, knew the limits of his approach and even hinted, his proof wouldn't be complete.
The assumption b=ak is perfectly fine. It was not postulated, k would be a integer. Proving k being an integer is the actual "difficult" part.
There just missed the part for showing n!∣k contradicts A. However I added that part, you may bother reading my post with the included link.
I'm sorry - my solution above is wrong as we cannot assume that b=ak, but we instead have to prove that the statement an−1∣bn−1 implies b=ak. I've asked help from my friend and his suggestion is 'every prime that can divide b must also divide a'. However, I still have no idea how to prove.
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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Suppose that a,b,n are integers
an−1bn−1=m
let b=ak
an−1ank−1=m
if n∣k,
ank−1=(an−1)(ak+ak−n+ak−2n+...an+1)
Hence, an−1bn−1=an−1(an−1)(ak+ak−n+ak−2n+...an+1)=ak+ak−n+ak−2n+...an+1=m
Thus, when k is any number which can be divided by n, b=ak
*not sure if this is correct, waiting for others to complete
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This should do.
Your proof is not correct.
Let A: an−1∣bn−1.
and B : b=ak
You have to prove that A implies B. What you've proven is that B implies A. Both are not the same thing. You can see this with the help of an example.
Suppose we want to prove " every integer x is even". (Obviously false).
Take A: x is an integer
and B: x is an even number.
We see that B implies A, but A does not imply B.
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He has done nothing wrong. He was very careful with the wording, knew the limits of his approach and even hinted, his proof wouldn't be complete. The assumption b=ak is perfectly fine. It was not postulated, k would be a integer. Proving k being an integer is the actual "difficult" part. There just missed the part for showing n !∣ k contradicts A. However I added that part, you may bother reading my post with the included link.
Hey I did not understand how did you find b=ak
I'm sorry - my solution above is wrong as we cannot assume that b=ak, but we instead have to prove that the statement an−1∣bn−1 implies b=ak. I've asked help from my friend and his suggestion is 'every prime that can divide b must also divide a'. However, I still have no idea how to prove.