I'm not sure if someone has noticed it before or not.
But anyways, I found this result today,
ℜ(arcsin x)={2π−2π∀ x≥1∀ x≤−1
ℜ(arccos x)={0π∀ x≥1∀ x≤−1
As @megh choksi suggested in my previous note, I'll not be sharing the proof right now. Instead, I'll wait for a few days for others to try.
Hint - You may read this wiki - Generalizing The Circular Functions
#Geometry
#Trigonometry
#InverseTrigonometricFunctions
#ComplexAnalysis
#Kishlaya
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Hi Kishlaya , you considering the aspect of doing Research in Maths ? You'd do well . Given the standard of your questions, the ideas and solving techniques that you come up with I think I know who's gonna come out to be the AIR 1 in JEE Advance in a few months . Don't you think so too ?
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Even I think, I know who's gonna be JEE AIR 1.
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Ofcourse, it's you and who else :)
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Dude there is a lot of competition and I can cite examples from Brilliant also with you , Pranjal , Ronak, Megh , Deepanshu topping the list ? Plus Physics and Inorganic Chemistry are Barriers that I have to overcome .
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Thank you .
@Jake Lai, @Shashwat Shukla , @Azhaghu Roopesh M , @megh choksi , @Pranjal Jain , @Calvin Lin , @Michael Mendrin, @Daniel Liu, @Jon Haussmann @Krishna Sharma
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Yeah , I'm on it . And check out my latest problem Kishlaya , it might be of significant interest to you !!!
Check it out !!!
@Kishlaya Jaiswal , @megh choksi
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Wow, that's an amazing problem and even the title being more amazing. And now, you're completely flattering me. Honestly speaking, I don't deserve that much brag.
You all (each and every Brilliantian) has been my inspiration. :)
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I'll just prove for ℜ(arcsin(x))=2π∀x≥1 as a HINT for others to prove the rest ⌣¨
We all know that arcsin(n)=−i⋅ln(i⋅n±1−n2)=−i⋅ln(i⋅n±im=−i⋅ln(i(n±m))
Now we use eix=cos(x)+i⋅sin(x)and=ln(i⋅x)=ln(x⋅ei⋅2π)=−i⋅(ln(x)+i⋅2π)=2π−ln(x)
So we get →2π−i⋅ln(n±m)
Therefore ℜ(arcsin(x))=2π
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@Jake Lai Is it possible to make the fonts look big ?
Perfect!!! And similarly, we can work out the other relations too.
Can I say this ?
ℜ(arcsin x)=ℜ(2π−cos−1x)
Thus 2π
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Yep, but not exactly because there will be a contradiction.
Because ℜ(2π−cos−1x)=2π−ℜ(cos−1x)
And then you need to make assumption that ℜ(cos−1x)=0
And then to prove the above assumption, you will again need ℜ(cos−1x)=ℜ(2π−sin−1x)
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I mean for x>0 , arc(cosx) will always be imaginary , so real part of will be pi/2.
For cos−1x , the same way you proved,
cos−1x=ilog(x+i1−x2)
For imaginary as well as real , it gives
cos−1x+sin−1x=2π
Please correct me if I am wrong
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A request can you post a wiki on double summation.
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And yes, I'll try my best to post a wiki on double summation as soon as I get time because I've my board examinations going on so it's a little difficult. Ok, so I'll write little by little each day and once the article gets completed, I'll be posting it.