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Just to clarify your induction, as it is a bit unclear, 111⋯1(3n+1 digits )=111⋯1(3n digits )×(102n+10n+1). Since (102n+10n+1) is divisible by 3, by the inductive hypothesis we finish the induction.
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This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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We prove this by induction:
Base case:
When n = 0, it is obviously true that 1 is divisible by 1.
When n = 1:
The number is 111 which is divisible by 3.
Inductive Case: Suppose the number 1111.....111 (which has 3^n digits) is divisible by 3^n.
For 3^(n+1) digits of 1, The sum of digits for this case is always a power of 3. Hence, the assertion is true.
Numerical Proof: 3^(n+1) divides 111....111 (which has 3^(n+1) digits)
(3^n)(3) divides 111....111 (which has (3^n)(3) = 3^n + 3^n + 3^n digits)
Remembering the case for n: the number 1111.....111 (which has 3^n digits) is divisible by 3^n and the base case, the proof is done.
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Just to clarify your induction, as it is a bit unclear, 111⋯1(3n+1 digits )=111⋯1(3n digits )×(102n+10n+1). Since (102n+10n+1) is divisible by 3, by the inductive hypothesis we finish the induction.
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Thank you very much,both of you. I should have solved myself. Thanks again:)
Thanks for clarifying! I also didn't notice that...
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Nicely expressed. This also shows that 3n is the largest power of 3 that divides 111…1.
As a side note, another way of stating the question is that 3n+2∣103n−1.
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v3(103n−1)=n+2 or 3n+2∣∣103n−1.
Yeah that's true. Or even better as you mentioned,