Given integers x and y, a linear combination of x and y has the form ax+by. Bezout's Lemma relates the question of finding the greatest common divisor of x and y to the question of finding linear combinations of x and y.
Bezout's Lemma: Given integers x and y, there exists integers a and b such that ax+by=gcd(x,y).
Technique
Applying the Euclidean Algorithm backwards gives an algorithm to obtain the integer values of a and b. We show how to obtain integers a and b such that 16457a+1638b=7. These numbers are calculated in Euclidean Algorithm.
7========2121×121−77×1−77×11638×41638×416457×(−85)−−−++−−+14×114×1(77−21×3)×121×4(1638−77×21)×477×85(16457−1638×10)×851638×854
Worked Examples
1. Given integers x,y, describe the set of all integers N that can be expressed in the form N=ax+by, where a,b are integers.
Solution: Let k=gcd(x,y). Then any integer of the form kn, where n is an integer, can be expressed as ax+by. We already know that this condition is a necessary condition, so to show that it is sufficient, Bezout's Lemma tells us that there exists integers a′,b′ such that k=a′x+b′y. Therefore,
kn=(a′n)x+(b′n)y.
2. [Modulo Arithmetic Property I - Multiplicative inverses] Show that if a,b are integers such that gcd(a,n)=1, then there exists an integer x such that ax≡1(modn).
Solution: Since gcd(a,n)=1, Bezout's Lemma implies there exists integers x,y such that ax+ny=gcd(a,n)=1. Then
1≡ax+ny≡ax(modn).
#NumberTheory
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Comments
I learned a lot! Thanks :D
I did not understand what the 1st worked example mean. Any number of form kn can be represented in the form ax+by but that does not mean that all nos of form ax+by will be of form kn. Actually just explain what the question demands?
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The question asks you to classify all numbers that can be written in the form ax+by for given integers x and y. The claim is that these numbers are exactly those of the form kn, wherek=gcd(x,y) and n is any integer.
As you realized, there are 2 parts to this.
First, we have to show that any number of the form ax+by can be written as kn for some n. This is obvious because we can let x=kx∗,y=ky∗ then ax+by=akx∗+bky∗=k(ax∗+by∗).
Second, we have to show that any number of the form kn can be written as ax+by for some a and b. This follows by applying Bezout's lemma, which tells us that there exists integers which satisfy k=a′x+b′y, and hence kn=(a′n)x+(b′n)y.
thanks....