Binomial

#Combinatorics

Note by Dhruv Joshi
4 years, 3 months ago

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need help

Dhruv Joshi - 4 years, 3 months ago

I here want to address Kartik Sharma for his truly marvelous approach and also to give him the credits for this approach. The solution you'll see below is an exact replication of his solution in one of his problems.


Proposition #1:m=1n(k=1mak)(nm)(1)m1=m=0n1(n1m)am+1(1)m\displaystyle \text{Proposition \#1:} \large \sum_{m=1}^n {\left(\sum_{k=1}^m{a_k}\right) \binom{n}{m} {(-1)}^{m-1}} = \sum_{m=0}^{n-1}{\binom{n-1}{m} a_{m+1}{(-1)}^m}

Proof:\text{Proof:}

LHS can be written as -

(n1)a1(n2)(a1+a2)+(n3)a3+(1)n1(nn)(a1+a2++an)\displaystyle \binom{n}{1}a_1 - \binom{n}{2}(a_1 + a_2) + \binom{n}{3} a_3 - \cdots + {(-1)}^{n-1} \binom{n}{n} (a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)

=((n1)(n2)+(n3)+(1)n1(nn))a1+((n2)+(n3)+(1)n1(nn))a2+              +((1)n1(nn))an\displaystyle = \left(\binom{n}{1} - \binom{n}{2} + \binom{n}{3} -\cdots +{(-1)}^{n-1}\binom{n}{n}\right) a_1 +\left(- \binom{n}{2} + \binom{n}{3} -\cdots +{(-1)}^{n-1}\binom{n}{n}\right) a_2 + \cdots \\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \displaystyle + \left( {(-1)}^{n-1} \binom{n}{n}\right) a_n

Using the fact that LaTeX: (n0)+(n1)(n2)+(n3)+(1)n1(nn)=0-\binom{n}{0} +\binom{n}{1} - \binom{n}{2} + \binom{n}{3} -\cdots +{(-1)}^{n-1}\binom{n}{n} = 0,

=(n0)a1+((n0)(n1))a2++((n0)(n1)+(n2)(n3)++(1)n1(nn1))an\displaystyle = \binom{n}{0} a_1 + \left(\binom{n}{0} - \binom{n}{1}\right) a_2 + \cdots + \left(\binom{n}{0} -\binom{n}{1} + \binom{n}{2} - \binom{n}{3} +\cdots +{(-1)}^{n-1}\binom{n}{n-1}\right) a_n

Proposition #2 :r=0k(nr)(1)r=(n1k)(1)k\displaystyle \text{Proposition \#2 :} \sum_{r=0}^k {\binom{n}{r} {(-1)}^r} = \binom{n-1}{k} {(-1)}^k

Proof:\text{Proof:}

We use induction (since it is very easy to observe using Pascal's triangle addition law).

S(k=0):(n0)=(n10)\displaystyle S(k=0) : \binom{n}{0} = \binom{n-1}{0} . LaTeX: True\text{True}

S(k):r=0k(nr)(1)r=r=0k1(nr)(1)r+(nk)(1)k\displaystyle S(k) : \sum_{r=0}^k {\binom{n}{r} {(-1)}^r} = \sum_{r=0}^{k-1} {\binom{n}{r} {(-1)}^r} + \binom{n}{k} {(-1)}^k

=(n1k1)(1)k1+(nk)(1)k=(n1k)(1)k\displaystyle = \binom{n-1}{k-1} {(-1)}^{k-1} + \binom{n}{k} {(-1)}^k = \binom{n-1}{k} {(-1)}^k

Q.E.D.\displaystyle \mathbf{Q.E.D.}\blacksquare

Coming back to our proof, we use this formula.

=(n10)a1(n11)a2+1n1(n1n1)an\displaystyle = \binom{n-1}{0} a_1 - \binom{n-1}{1} a_2 + \cdots {-1}^{n-1} \binom{n-1}{n-1} a_n

=m=0n1(n1m)am+1(1)m\displaystyle = \sum_{m=0}^{n-1}{\binom{n-1}{m} a_{m+1} {(-1)}^m}

Q.E.D.\displaystyle \mathbf{Q.E.D.}\blacksquare

Now if we substitute ak=1ka_k = \frac{1}{k},

m=1n(nm)Hm(1)m1=m=0n1(n1m)(1)mm+1=1n\displaystyle \sum_{m=1}^n {\binom{n}{m} H_m {(-1)}^{m-1}} = \sum_{m=0}^{n-1}{\binom{n-1}{m} \frac{{(-1)}^m}{m+1}} = \frac{1}{n}


Note that HmH_m denotes the harmonic number which is given by

Hm=k=1m1mH_m = \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^m \dfrac 1m

as stated in your problem.

Tapas Mazumdar - 4 years, 2 months ago
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