Show that there can never be an infinite arithmetic progression whose terms are made of distinct integers all of which are squares. Also, if you can, find the maximum size (number of terms) of such a progression.
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science
related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should
explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments
should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
Use the emojis to react to an explanation, whether you're congratulating a job well done , or just really confused .
Ask specific questions about the challenge or the steps in somebody's explanation. Well-posed questions can add a lot to the discussion, but posting "I don't understand!" doesn't help anyone.
Try to contribute something new to the discussion, whether it is an extension, generalization or other idea related to the challenge.
Stay on topic — we're all here to learn more about math and science, not to hear about your favorite get-rich-quick scheme or current world events.
Markdown
Appears as
*italics* or _italics_
italics
**bold** or __bold__
bold
- bulleted - list
bulleted
list
1. numbered 2. list
numbered
list
Note: you must add a full line of space before and after lists for them to show up correctly
# I indented these lines
# 4 spaces, and now they show
# up as a code block.
print "hello world"
# I indented these lines
# 4 spaces, and now they show
# up as a code block.
print "hello world"
Math
Appears as
Remember to wrap math in \( ... \) or \[ ... \] to ensure proper formatting.
2 \times 3
2×3
2^{34}
234
a_{i-1}
ai−1
\frac{2}{3}
32
\sqrt{2}
2
\sum_{i=1}^3
∑i=13
\sin \theta
sinθ
\boxed{123}
123
Comments
If a,b∈N then:
f(m)=a+mb
is an increasing function of m. Moreover, f(m+1)−f(m)=b.
Suppose that f(m)=nm2 for a sequence of terms nm∈N. Necessarily nm is an increasing sequence of integers. We know that the gap between two consecutive squares is given by:
(n+1)2−n2=2n+1.
For sufficiently large N,2n+1>b∀n>N. Now let m be large enough so that nm>N. Thus we have
Fermat has proven that there cannot exist such a progression beyond 3 terms and I didn't make head or tails of his proof.Just in case anyone was interested.
I made a guess that it would be 3. But I couldn't quite get there. I tried to prove that you can't have a progression with 3 terms like this:
Say l2 is the middle term and (l−k)2 is the term below it. So now the common diference is 2kl−k2. Say now that (l+m)2 is the next term. So the common difference can now be expressed as 2lm+m2.
Equating the common differences, we get that l=2(k−m)k2+m2. And then I kinda got stuck
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
If a,b∈N then:
f(m)=a+mb
is an increasing function of m. Moreover, f(m+1)−f(m)=b.
Suppose that f(m)=nm2 for a sequence of terms nm∈N. Necessarily nm is an increasing sequence of integers. We know that the gap between two consecutive squares is given by:
(n+1)2−n2=2n+1. For sufficiently large N,2n+1>b∀n>N. Now let m be large enough so that nm>N. Thus we have
f(m+1)−f(m)=(nm+1)2−(nm)2≥(nm+1)2−(nm)2=2nm+1>b
Fermat has proven that there cannot exist such a progression beyond 3 terms and I didn't make head or tails of his proof.Just in case anyone was interested.
Log in to reply
I made a guess that it would be 3. But I couldn't quite get there. I tried to prove that you can't have a progression with 3 terms like this:
Say l2 is the middle term and (l−k)2 is the term below it. So now the common diference is 2kl−k2. Say now that (l+m)2 is the next term. So the common difference can now be expressed as 2lm+m2.
Equating the common differences, we get that l=2(k−m)k2+m2. And then I kinda got stuck
Did Fermat prove that it cannot exist with 3 terms as well? Or is there a progression with 3 terms?
Log in to reply
Do you want an example of a progress with 3 terms?12,52,72 Here you go.But Fermat proved that such progression cannot extend over 3 terms.