Can you prove ?!

Prove that cos(1o)cos(1^{o}) is irrational

#Geometry #CosinesGroup #Cos

Note by Abdulrahman El Shafei
6 years, 7 months ago

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Comments

The following is the standard approach.

Using the method of proof by contradiction, assume that cos(1)\cos(1^{\circ}) is rational.

Then cos(2)=2cos2(1)1\cos(2^{\circ}) = 2*\cos^{2}(1^{\circ}) - 1 must also be rational.

Now cos(k+1)+cos(k1)=2cos(k)cos(1)\cos(k^{\circ} + 1^{\circ}) + \cos(k^{\circ} - 1^{\circ}) = 2\cos(k^{\circ})\cos(1^{\circ}).

Using this equation, now that we have, by assumption, cos(1)\cos(1^{\circ}) and hence cos(2)\cos(2^{\circ}) as rational, (in addition to the fact that cos(0)=1\cos(0^{\circ}) = 1 is rational), we see that in turn cos(n)\cos(n^{\circ}) is rational for each successive integer. But cos(30)=32\cos(30^{\circ}) = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} is clearly irrational, thus implying that the original assumption, i.e., that cos(1)\cos(1^{\circ}) is rational, is in fact false.

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 7 months ago

HAVE U USED INDUCTION

vishwesh agrawal - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Yes, I have essentially used strong induction on the equation

cos(k+1)=2cos(k)cos(1)cos(k1)\cos(k^{\circ} + 1^{\circ}) = 2\cos(k^{\circ})\cos(1^{\circ}) - \cos(k^{\circ} - 1^{\circ}).

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 7 months ago
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