Constant of integration

The problem "Fundamental Rule of Leibniz?" greatly confused me about the constant of integration. In the question, f(x)=1xdxandf\left( x \right) =\int { \frac { 1 }{ x } } dx\quad and f(1)=1f\left( -1 \right) =1 We are asked to find the value of f(1)f\left( 1 \right) According to the answer, the value cannot be found. f(x)=lnx+Cf\left( x \right) =\ln { \left| x \right| } +C f(1)=ln1+C=1f\left( -1 \right) =\ln { \left| -1 \right| } +C=1 ThisgivesC=1This\quad gives\quad C=1 Now,f(1)=ln1+C=CNow,\quad f\left( 1 \right) =\ln { \left| 1 \right| } +C'\quad =C' I think that C should be equal to C' but according to the answer,CC C\neq C' I am unable to understand it. Can someone please explain it.

#Calculus

Note by Abhijeet Verma
6 years, 1 month ago

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Comments

I think the issue may be the lack of continuity of the function 1x\dfrac{1}{x} at x=0.x = 0. First, I'm wondering if the initial statement of the question should in fact be

f(x)=ax1tdt\displaystyle f(x) = \int_{a}^{x} \dfrac{1}{t} dt with f(1)=1 f(-1) = 1 for some non-zero real value a.a.

Then f(x)=lnxlnaf(1)=ln1lna=1lna=1a=±1e.f(x) = \ln |x| - ln |a| \Longrightarrow f(-1) = \ln |-1| - \ln |a| = 1 \Longrightarrow \ln |a| = -1 \Longrightarrow a = \pm \dfrac{1}{e}.

This interpretation is still consistent with C=1,C = 1, but I have phrased the question so that C=lna.C = -\ln |a|. Further, to avoid the discontinuity of f(x)f(x) at x=0,x = 0, for negative values of xx we would need to make a=1e,a = -\dfrac{1}{e}, and for positive values of xx make a=1e.a = \dfrac{1}{e}. This may seem like an odd requirement, but in order to make f(x)f(x) well-defined for both positive and negative values of xx I think that this is necessary.

So with this in mind, we have that f(1)=1e11tdt=ln1ln1e=1,f(-1) = \displaystyle\int_{-\frac{1}{e}}^{-1} \dfrac{1}{t} dt = \ln |-1| - \ln |-\dfrac{1}{e}| = 1, and

f(1)=1e11tdt=ln(1)ln(1e)=1.f(1) = \displaystyle\int_{\frac{1}{e}}^{1} \dfrac{1}{t} dt = \ln(1) - \ln(\dfrac{1}{e}) = 1.

So with this interpretation we, in essence, find that C=CC = C', in agreement with your observation, but I had to rephrase the question so that f(x)f(x) was well-defined for both positive and negative reals in the first place.

I may have confused you even further with this analysis, but feel free to ask any questions you might have. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 1 month ago

Sir @Brian Charlesworth and Sir @Sandeep Bhardwaj please help.

Abhijeet Verma - 6 years, 1 month ago
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