This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science
related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should
explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments
should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
Use the emojis to react to an explanation, whether you're congratulating a job well done , or just really confused .
Ask specific questions about the challenge or the steps in somebody's explanation. Well-posed questions can add a lot to the discussion, but posting "I don't understand!" doesn't help anyone.
Try to contribute something new to the discussion, whether it is an extension, generalization or other idea related to the challenge.
Stay on topic — we're all here to learn more about math and science, not to hear about your favorite get-rich-quick scheme or current world events.
Markdown
Appears as
*italics* or _italics_
italics
**bold** or __bold__
bold
- bulleted - list
bulleted
list
1. numbered 2. list
numbered
list
Note: you must add a full line of space before and after lists for them to show up correctly
Very elegant solution. That's the exact process I used to get the solution, given that it does converge. I just wonder if this is enough to prove that the sequence certainly does converge.
@Efren Medallo
–
No, that's not a sufficient condition. Consider the following counter-example of a sequence {an}n≥0 defined by an+1=2an∀n≥0 and the base case a0=1
If we assume that the sequence converges, i.e., assume that n→∞liman=y exists and is finite, then we get using the recurrence relation that y=2y⟹y=0 which is finite. But the sequence is actually an=2n∀n≥0 which is divergent.
One possible way to show the convergence is to consider the two subsequences {a2n}n≥0 and {a2n+1}n≥0 and show that they are monotone and bounded. The first subsequence is monotonically increasing and strictly bounded above by 1 and below by 1/2 and the second subsequence is monotonically decreasing and strictly bounded below by 0 and above by 1/2. Since monotone bounded sequences have a finite limit, denote the limits of the two subsequences by l1 and l2 respectively. Then, both l1 and l2 are solutions of the equation below:
k=1−1−k⟹k2=1−1−k⟹(k2−1)2=1−k⟹(k−1)(k2+k−1)=0
Now, to show that the sequence {an}n≥0 is convergent, we need to show that l1=l2, i.e., we need to show that there exists a unique real root k0 of the above equation such that 1/2≤k0≤1/2. Solving the equation shows that there does exist a unique real root k0 which is equal to 1/ϕ and hence the sequence {an}n≥0 is convergent with the limit being 1/ϕ.
Another way to show the convergence would be to show that the map x↦1−x is a contraction mapping in the metric space [0,1] with the usual absolute value metric and then invoke the Banach fixed point theorem to show that the sequence {an}n≥0 is convergent with the limit being the fixed point of the mentioned contraction mapping, which is 1/ϕ.
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
Let's see.
Supposing we start off with a number a0.
a1=1−a0
a2=1−a1
a2=1−1−a0
a3=1−a2
a3=1−1−a1
a3=1−1−1−a0
As you can notice, an seemingly becomes a nested radical starting from a0..
If we extend this toward infinity, we will know if an approaches a specific value.
an=1−1−1−1−...
We can condense this into
an=1−an
an2+an−1=0
We are now left with an equation in terms of an, which surprisingly means that no matter what a0 we begin with, it reaches this value of an.
Coincidentally, this an, when solved, gives the reciprocal of the golden ratio 2−1+5. Well the other value is discarded as it is extraneous.
Log in to reply
Very elegant solution. That's the exact process I used to get the solution, given that it does converge. I just wonder if this is enough to prove that the sequence certainly does converge.
Log in to reply
I think since it was assumed that limn→∞an=y, so we reached for a particular value of y, which verifies that indeed the limit exists.
Log in to reply
{an}n≥0 defined by an+1=2an ∀ n≥0 and the base case a0=1
No, that's not a sufficient condition. Consider the following counter-example of a sequenceIf we assume that the sequence converges, i.e., assume that n→∞liman=y exists and is finite, then we get using the recurrence relation that y=2y⟹y=0 which is finite. But the sequence is actually an=2n ∀ n≥0 which is divergent.
One possible way to show the convergence is to consider the two subsequences {a2n}n≥0 and {a2n+1}n≥0 and show that they are monotone and bounded. The first subsequence is monotonically increasing and strictly bounded above by 1 and below by 1/2 and the second subsequence is monotonically decreasing and strictly bounded below by 0 and above by 1/2. Since monotone bounded sequences have a finite limit, denote the limits of the two subsequences by l1 and l2 respectively. Then, both l1 and l2 are solutions of the equation below:
k=1−1−k⟹k2=1−1−k⟹(k2−1)2=1−k⟹(k−1)(k2+k−1)=0
Now, to show that the sequence {an}n≥0 is convergent, we need to show that l1=l2, i.e., we need to show that there exists a unique real root k0 of the above equation such that 1/2≤k0≤1/2. Solving the equation shows that there does exist a unique real root k0 which is equal to 1/ϕ and hence the sequence {an}n≥0 is convergent with the limit being 1/ϕ.
Another way to show the convergence would be to show that the map x↦1−x is a contraction mapping in the metric space [0,1] with the usual absolute value metric and then invoke the Banach fixed point theorem to show that the sequence {an}n≥0 is convergent with the limit being the fixed point of the mentioned contraction mapping, which is 1/ϕ.