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or, combining the fractions and multiplying all sides by n!
0<en!−N≤n1
where N is an integer. If e can be expressed as a fraction a/b where a and b are integers, then we can choose n large enough so that en! is an integer, which means that en!−N is an integer. But it’s impossible for there to be an integer between 0 and n1. Hence, e must be irrational.
When I read the last line of the proof, I was a bit puzzled as to why it worked. Sure you followed these steps through, but shouldn't work for just about anything?
Then I realised that e≡∑n!−1! As Hardy once said, "A chess player may offer the sacrifice of a pawn or even a piece, but a mathematician offers the game." Great example.
That was a really astute point you brought up, as to "why should this work for this particular instance?" Thanks, it's worth deeper analysis. So maybe it wasn't just hand-waving, after all.
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This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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We start with the series expansion of e
e=1+2!1+3!1+...
which, for any n, we can restate as
e=(1+2!1+3!1+...+n!1)+((n+1)!1+(n+2)!1+...)
e=(1+2!1+3!1+...+n!1)+n!1((n+1)1+(n+1)(n+2)1+...)
But, because we know that
(n+1)1+(n+1)(n+1)1+(n+1)(n+1)(n+1)1+...=n1
we can write
0<e−(1+2!1+3!1+...+n!1)≤n!1n1
or, combining the fractions and multiplying all sides by n!
0<en!−N≤n1
where N is an integer. If e can be expressed as a fraction a/b where a and b are integers, then we can choose n large enough so that en! is an integer, which means that en!−N is an integer. But it’s impossible for there to be an integer between 0 and n1. Hence, e must be irrational.
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When I read the last line of the proof, I was a bit puzzled as to why it worked. Sure you followed these steps through, but shouldn't work for just about anything?
Then I realised that e≡∑n!−1! As Hardy once said, "A chess player may offer the sacrifice of a pawn or even a piece, but a mathematician offers the game." Great example.
Like Sandeep Bhardwaj said, a million salutes.
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That was a really astute point you brought up, as to "why should this work for this particular instance?" Thanks, it's worth deeper analysis. So maybe it wasn't just hand-waving, after all.
Absolute ! Millions of salutes to you sir.
I have no idea to prove it . But Just For a Joke : Type 'e' in any Advanced calculator .
Hence Proved . Lol ! :)
Thanks @Po.